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This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Fertilization and Development of Embryo, Subject name: Anatomy | Morula is how many ceiled -
Select and explain.
A. 4, B. 8, C. 12, D. 16 | D: 16 | Answer: D: 16
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., 16 o At about 16 cells stage the blastomeres tightly align by the process of compaction to form a compact ball of cells called morula (mulberry ).o This process of compaction leads to segregation of cells into two groups :Inner cells (inner cell mass)Outer cells (outer ceil mass)o Morula enters uterine cavity 4 days after fertilization. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Environment and Health, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | Culex mosquito transmits:
Select and explain.
A. Yellow fever, B. Dengue fever, C. Tularemia, D. Japanese encephalitis | D: Japanese encephalitis | Answer: D: Japanese encephalitis
Explanation: Ans: D (Japanese encephalitis) Ref: 21st edition Park.Explanation:The diseases transmitted by various insects are* Anopheles mosquito- MalariaFilaria (not in India)Culex mosquitoBancroftian FilariasisJapanese EncephalitisWest Nile feverViral Arthritis (epidemic / polyarthritis)Aedes mosquitoYellow fever (not in India)DengueDengue Haemorrhagic feverChikungunya feverChikungunya haemorrhagic feverRift Valley feverFilaria (not in India)Mansonoides mosquitoMalayan (Brugian) filariasisChikungunya feverHouseflyTyphoid and paratyphoid feverDiarrhoeaDysentryCholeraGastroenteritisAmoebiasisHelminthic infestationsPoliomyelitisConjucntivitisTrachomaAnthraxYawsSandflyKala-azarOriental SoreSandfly feverOraya FeverTsetse FlySleeping SicknessLouseEpidemic TyphusRelapsing FeverTrench FeverPediculosisRat FleaBubonic PlagueEndemic TyphusChiggerosisHymenolepis diminutaBlack FlyOnchocerciasisReduvid BugChagas DiseaseHard TickTick TyphusViral EncephalitisViral FeversViral Hemorrhagic fevers (eg KFD)TularemiaTick ParalysisHuman BabesiosisSoft TickQ FeverRelapsing FeverTrombiculid MiteScrub TyphusRickettsial PoxItch-miteScabiesCyclopsGuinea WormFish Tape wormCockroachesEnteric Pathogens |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: JIPMER 2017, Subject name: Pathology | Carbohydrate tumor marker for breast cancer:
Select and explain.
A. CA 15-3, B. CA 125, C. CA 34, D. CA 19-9 | A: CA 15-3 | Answer: A: CA 15-3
Explanation: Carbohydrate-rich tumor markers are specific antigens found either on the surface of tumor cells or may also be secreted as products by the tumor cells. CA: carbohydrate antigen/cancer antigen. Specific Proteins Immunoglobulins Multiple myeloma and other gammopathies Prostate-specific antigen and prostate-specific membrane antigen Prostate cancer Mucins and Other Glycoproteins CA-125 Ovarian cancer CA-19-9 Colon cancer, pancreatic cancer CA-15-3 Breast cancer CA 125: tumor marker of primary ovarian cancer of surface epithelial subtype. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Head and neck, Subject name: Anatomy | Which of the following is the action of the lateral pterygoid muscle on the temporomandibular joint?
Select and explain.
A. Elevation, B. Depression, C. Adduction, D. Abduction | B: Depression | Answer: B: Depression
Explanation: Depression of the mandible or opening of the mouth is produced mainly by the lateral pterygoid helped by gravity.Elevation is produced by the medial pterygoid, temporalis and masseter.Reference: Textbook of anatomy, Head Neck, and Brain, Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no.148 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | Oedema aquosum occurs in :
Select and explain.
A. Wet drowning, B. Dry drowning, C. Secondary drowning, D. Immersion syndrome | A: Wet drowning | Answer: A: Wet drowning
Explanation: A i.e. Wet drowning |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Absolute contraindication for Transvaginal sonography
Select and explain.
A. Placenta previa, B. Imperforate hymen, C. Abruptio placenta, D. Abnormal uterine bleeding | B: Imperforate hymen | Answer: B: Imperforate hymen
Explanation: Imperforate hymen and patient refusal are the only absolute contraindications for Transvaginal sonography. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | Learned Behaviour which is permanent and consistent but liable to change
Select and explain.
A. Culture, B. Practice, C. Attitude, D. Socialism | B: Practice | Answer: B: Practice
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | 65 year old Ramdeen presents with Abdominal pain and distension of abdomen. His stools were maroon coloured and he gives a past history of cerebrovascular accident and myocardial infarction. What will be the probable diagnosis -
Select and explain.
A. Ulcerative colitis, B. Acute mesentric ischemia, C. Irritable bowel syndrome, D. Chron's disease | B: Acute mesentric ischemia | Answer: B: Acute mesentric ischemia
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | Checkpoint for stability of fixation of ZMC fracture:
Select and explain.
A. Zygomaticomaxillary, B. Zygomaticofrontal, C. Arch symmetry, D. Infraorbital rim | A: Zygomaticomaxillary | Answer: A: Zygomaticomaxillary
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Disorders of Carbohydrate Metabolism, Subject name: Pediatrics | Peripheral smear may show vacuolated lymphocytes in all of the following EXCEPT?
Select and explain.
A. Abetalipoproteinemia, B. Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis, C. Fucosidosis, D. Sialidosis | A: Abetalipoproteinemia | Answer: A: Abetalipoproteinemia
Explanation: Peripheral smear may show vacuolated lymphocytes in: Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis Fucosidosis Sialidosis Abetalipoproteinemia- acanthocytosis |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: ENT | Vocal cord palsy is not associated with:
Select and explain.
A. Veebral secondaries, B. Left atrial enlargement, C. Bronchogenic carcinoma, D. Secondaries in mediastinum | A: Veebral secondaries | Answer: A: Veebral secondaries
Explanation: Vocal cord paralysis is most commonly iatrogenic in origin following surgery to Thyroid, parathyroid, carotid or cardiothoracic structures. Neck trauma Benign or malignant thyroid disease Thyroid surgery Carcinoma cervical oesophagus Cervical lymphadenopathy |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | The sequence of events in glycogenolysis?
Select and explain.
A. Phosphorylase, Glucan transferase, Debranching, Phosphorylase, B. Debranching, Phosphorylase, transferase, phosphorylase, C. Transferase, phosphorylase, Debranching, phosphorylase, D. Any of the above | A: Phosphorylase, Glucan transferase, Debranching, Phosphorylase | Answer: A: Phosphorylase, Glucan transferase, Debranching, Phosphorylase
Explanation: Phosphorylase, Glucan transferase, Debranching, Phosphorylase
Enzymes of glycogenolysis come into play in the following sequence : (i) Glycogen phosphorylase → (ii) Glucan transferase → (iii) Debranching enzyme. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: All India exam, Subject name: Pathology | Which of the following amino acid in a protein is involved in urea cycle and is required for synthesis of Nitric Oxide?
Select and explain.
A. Arginine, B. Histidine, C. Tryptophan, D. Lysine | A: Arginine | Answer: A: Arginine
Explanation: . |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Changes in the respiratory system in pregnancy;
Select and explain.
A. Vital capacity is increased, B. Subcostal angle remains unchanged, C. Tidal volume remains unaltered, D. Residual volume Is decreased | D: Residual volume Is decreased | Answer: D: Residual volume Is decreased
Explanation: Anatomical changes:The lower ribs flare out,the subcoastal angles increases from 68 to 103 degree,transverse diameter of chest increases by 2 cm and the diaphragm rises about 4cm in pregnancy. Functional changes:Increase in ventilation in pregnancy is achieved by an increase in tidal volume by 40%.Minute ventilatory volume also increases.There is no change in vital capacity.The functional residual capacity and residual volume are decreased due to elevated diaphragm. TEXT BOOK OF OBSTETRICS,Sheila Balakrishnan,2nd edition,page no.80 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Immunology and Rheumatology, Subject name: Medicine | SLE like syndrome is caused by:
Select and explain.
A. Hydralazine, B. Phenytoin, C. Procainamide, D. All of the above | D: All of the above | Answer: D: All of the above
Explanation: Ans: dRef: Harrison, 16thed, p. 1967 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Microbiology | Cefoxitin - cycloserine fructose agar is used for ?
Select and explain.
A. Neisseria, B. Clostridium difficle, C. Bacillus anttacis, D. Reiter's treponema | B: Clostridium difficle | Answer: B: Clostridium difficle
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Clostridium difficle Cefoxitin - cycloserine fructose agar (CCFA) is an enriched selective and differential medium recommended for the isolation and cultivation of clostridium difficle from fecal specimens. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Proteins and Amino Acids, Subject name: Biochemistry | Type I Tyrosinemia is caused by:
Select and explain.
A. Tyrosine transaminase, B. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase, C. 4 Hydroxy phenyl pyruvate hydroxylase, D. Maleyl acetoacetate isomerase | B: Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase | Answer: B: Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
Explanation: Ans. B. Fumarylaceto Acetate HydrolaseAmino acidurias and enzyme defectClassic Phenyl KetonuriaPhenylalanine HydroxylaseAlkaptonuriaHomogentisate OxidaseTyrosinemia Type I (Most common Tyrosinemia)Fumaryl Aceto Acetate HydrolaseTyrosinemia Type IITyrosine TransaminaseTyrosinemia Type IIIPara Hydroxy Phenyl Pyruvate hydroxylase/Para hydroxyl Phenyl Pyruvate DioxygenaseHawkinsinuriaPara Hydroxy Phenyl Pyruvate hydroxylase/Para hydroxyl Phenyl Pyruvate Dioxygenase is mutant, so that it catalyse only partial reaction.Segawa SyndromeGTP CyclohydrolaseAlbinismTyrosinase |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Anti-Helminths, Subject name: Pharmacology | Drug used in Toxoplasmosis is :
Select and explain.
A. Pyrimethamine, B. Ribovarin, C. Ganciclovir, D. Tetracycline | A: Pyrimethamine | Answer: A: Pyrimethamine
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e. Pyrimethamine Doc for Toxoplasmosis - Pyrimethamine and Trimethoprim |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Physiology | The best method to assess the adequacy of replacement of fluid in a case of shock is:
Select and explain.
A. Decrease in thirst, B. Increased PaO, C. Increase in urine output, D. Blood pressure | C: Increase in urine output | Answer: C: Increase in urine output
Explanation: The primary goal in fluid resuscitation for all forms of shock is the same: restoration of adequate end organ perfusion. Urine output is a quantitative and relatively reliable indicator of organ perfusion. It is a reflection of kidney perfusion and function and an indicator of renal, cardiovascular, and fluid volume status. Must know: Signs of a successful initial resuscitation: Improved blood pressure Improving level of consciousness Improving peripheral perfusion Decreasing tachycardia Decreasing lactate Normalizing pH Ref: Holcroft J.W., Anderson J.T., Sena M.J. (2010). Chapter 12. Shock & Acute Pulmonary Failure in Surgical Patients. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | True regarding gypsum bonded investments is:
Select and explain.
A. After dehydration all forms of gypsum shrink between 200-400 degree Celsius., B. Between 400-700 degree Celsius a slight expansion is noted., C. Lateral shrinkage in gypsum is caused due to decomposition and release of sulphur dioxide., D. All of the above | D: All of the above | Answer: D: All of the above
Explanation: After dehydration all forms of gypsum shrink between 200-400° C.
Between 400 and 700° C, a slight expansion is noted.
Lateral shrinkage in gypsum is caused due to the decomposition and the release of sulfur dioxide.
It is imperative, that gypsum investment should not be heated above 700° C.
Phillip’s 12th edition page 201 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Hallmarks of Cancer, Subject name: Pathology | True about primary gastric lymphoma is
Select and explain.
A. Affects young adults, B. Surgery is never indicated, C. T cell lymphoma, D. H pylori infection increases the risk | D: H pylori infection increases the risk | Answer: D: H pylori infection increases the risk
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., H pylori infection increases the risk o The stomach is the most common site for extranodal lymphoma. Nearly al! gastric lymphomas are B-cell lymphomas of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MAL T lymphoma),o Majority of cases (80%) are associated with chronic gastritis and H. Pylori infection. The most striking evidence linking H. Pylori gastritis to MALToma is that eradication of infection by antibiotics induces durable remission with low rate of recurrence.o Gastric lymphoma represents 5% of all gastric malignancies. It is most prevalent is sixth decade of life.o Like other tumors of mature B cells, MALTomas express B-ceil markers CD 19 and CD 20. They do not express CD 5, CD 10 and CD 23.o Diagnosis is made by endoscopic biopsy.o Gastric lymphomas are chemosensitive and chemotherapy alone or along with surgeiy is used for the treatment of gastric lymphoma.o MALT lymphoma (Moltoma) produce lympho-epiihelial lesion in stomach. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Unknown | Which of the following is not discarded in yellow bag?
Select and explain.
A. Human waste, B. Microbiological waste, C. Solid waste, D. Sharp waste | D: Sharp waste | Answer: D: Sharp waste
Explanation: Answer: D. Sharp waste. Types of Bio-medical waste Bio-medical waste means "any solid and/or liquid waste including its container and any intermediate product, which is generated during the diagnosis, treatment or immunization of human beings or animals or research activities pertaining thereto or in the production or testing of biological or in health camps. Biomedical waste poses hazard due to two principal reasons - the first is infectivity and other toxicity. Bio Medical waste consists of Human anatomical waste like tissues, organs and body parts Animal wastes generated during research from veterinary hospitals Microbiology and biotechnology wastes Waste sharps like hypodermic needles, syringes, scalpels and broken glass Discarded medicines and cytotoxic drugs Soiled waste such as dressing, bandages, plaster casts, material contaminated with blood, tubes and catheters Liquid waste from any of the infected areas Incineration ash and other chemical wastes The biomedical waste (BMW) management requires its categorisation as a first step. The BMW Rules classify the BMW into following categories. CATEGORIES OF BIOMEDICAL WASTE SCHEDULE - I CATEGORY TYPE OF WASTE TYPE OF BAG OR CONTAINER TO BE USED TREATMENT AND DISPOSAL OPTION Yellow Human tissues, organs, body parts and fetus below the viability period (as per the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act 1971, amended from time to time). Yellow coloured non-chlorinated plastic bags Incineration or Plasma Pyrolysis or deep burial * Animal Anatomical Waste : Experimental animal carcasses, body parts, organs, tissues, including the waste generated from animals used in experiments or testing in veterinary hospitals or colleges or animal houses. Soiled Waste: Items contaminated with blood, body fluids like dressings, plaster casts, cotton swabs and bags containing residual or discarded blood and blood components. Incineration or Plasma Pyrolysis or deep burial * In absence of above facilities, autoclaving or micro-waving/ hydroclaving followed by shredding or mutilation or combination of sterilization and shredding. Treated waste to be sent for energy recovery. Expired or Discarded Medicines: Pharmaceutical waste like antibiotics, cytotoxic drugs including all items contaminated with cytotoxic drugs along with glass or plastic ampoules, vials etc. Yellow coloured non-chlorinated plastic bags or containers Expired cytotoxic drugs and items contaminated with cytotoxic drugs to be returned back to the manufacturer or supplier for incineration at temperature >1200 0 C or to common bio - medical waste treatment facility or hazardous waste treatment, storage and disposal facility for incineration at >1200 0 C Or Encapsulation or Plasma Pyrolysis at >1200 0 C All other discarded medicines shall be either sent back to manufacturer or disposed by incineration. Chemical Waste: Chemicals used in production of biological and used or discarded disinfectants. Yellow coloured containers or non-chlorinated plastic bags Disposed of by incineration or Plasma Pyrolysis or Encapsulation in hazardous waste treatment, storage and disposal facility . Chemical Liquid Waste : Liquid waste generated due to use of chemicals in production of biological and used or discarded disinfectants, Silver X - ray film developing liquid, discarded Formalin, infected secretions, aspirated body fluids , liquid from laboratories an d floor washings, cleaning, house - keeping and disinfecting activities etc. Separate collection system leading to effluent treatment system After resource recovery, the chemical liquid waste shall be pre - treated before mixing with other wastewater. The combined discharge shall conform to the discharge norms given in Schedule - III. Discarded linen, mattresses, beddings contaminated with blood or body fluid. Non-chlorinated yellow plastic bags or suitable packing material Non - chlorinated chemical disinfection followed by incineration or Plazma Pyrolysis or for energy recovery. In absence of above facilities, shredding or mutilation or combination of sterilization and shredding. Treated waste to be sent for energy recovery or incineration or Plazma Pyrolysis . Microbiology, Biotechnology and other clinical laboratory waste: Blood bags, Laboratory cultures, stocks or specimens of micro - organisms, live or attenuated vaccines, human and animal cell cultures used in research, industrial laboratories, production of biological, residual toxins, dishes and devices used for cultures. Autoclave safe plastic bags or containers Pre - treat to sterilize with non - chlorinated chemicals on - site as per National AIDS Control Organisation or World Health Organisation guidelines thereafter for Incineration. Red Waste (Recyclable) Wastes generated from disposable items such as tubing, bottles, intravenous tubes and sets, catheters, urine bags, syringes (without needles and fixed needle syringes ) and vaccutainers with their needles cut) and gloves. Red coloured non-chlorinated plastic bags or containers Autoclaving or micro - waving/ hydroclaving followed by shredding or mutilation or combination of sterilization and shredding. Treated waste to be sent to registered or authorized recyclers or for energy recovery or plastics to diesel or fuel oil or for road making, whichever is possible. Plastic waste should not be sent to landfill sites. White (Translucent) Waste sharps including Metals: Needles, syringes with fixed needles, needles from needle tip cutter or burner, scalpels, blades, or any other contaminated sharp object that may cause puncture and cuts. This includes both used, discarded and contaminated metal sharps Puncture proof, Leak proof, tamper proof containers Autoclaving or Dry Heat Sterilization followed by shredding or mutilation or encapsulation in metal container or cement concrete; combination of shredding cum autoclaving; and sent for final disposal to iron foundries (having consent to operate from the State Pollution Control Board s or Pollution Control Committee s) or sanitary landfill or designated concrete waste sharp pit. Blue Glassware: Broken or discarded and contaminated glass including medicine vials and ampoules except those contaminated with cytotoxic wastes Cardboard boxes with blue colored marking Disinfection (by soaking the washed glass waste after cleaning with detergent and Sodium Hypochlorite treatment) or through autoclaving or microwaving or hydroclaving and then sent for recycling. Metallic Body Implants * Disposal by deep burial is permitted only in rural or remote areas where there is no access to common bio - medical waste treatment facility. This will be carried out with prior approval from the prescribed authority and as per the Standards specified in Schedule - III. The deep burial facility shall be located as per the provisions and guidelines issued by Central Pollution Control Board from time to time. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | Spongiosis is seen in ?
Select and explain.
A. Acute eczema, B. Lichen Planus, C. Psoriasis, D. Pemphigus | A: Acute eczema | Answer: A: Acute eczema
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acute eczemao Spongiosis is the accumulation of edema fluid within the intercellular space of epidermis and is characteristic of acute eczematous dermatitis. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Treatment in psychiatry, Subject name: Anatomy | who gave the psychosocial stage of development
Select and explain.
A. erikson, B. bleuler, C. freud, D. lorenz | A: erikson | Answer: A: erikson
Explanation: ERIC ERIKSON ERIC ERIKSON gave the psychosocail stages of development There are 8 psychosocial stages A person has to succesfully pass one stage to move to the next stage If he gets arrested in one stage he may develop some disorders Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pf no. 485 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Unilateral clubbing seen in -a) Samilial clubbingb) Pancoast tumorc) Pulmonary A-V fistula d) Aortic aneurysm (arch)e) Congenital cyanotic heart ds.
Select and explain.
A. bcd, B. acd, C. ac, D. bd | A: bcd | Answer: A: bcd
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Which of the following medicaments is indicated to obturate the canals of a primary tooth in which a pulpectomy was performed?
Select and explain.
A. Gutta-percha, B. Calcium hydroxide, C. Zinc oxide-eugenol, D. Calcium hydroxide-CMCP paste | C: Zinc oxide-eugenol | Answer: C: Zinc oxide-eugenol
Explanation: Zinc Oxide Eugenol
Most commonly used.
Bonastre (1837) discovered zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE) and it was subsequently used in dentistry by Chisholm (1876).
Zinc oxide eugenol paste, the first root canal filling material to be recommended for primary teeth, as described by Sweet in 1930.
Zinc oxide eugenol is said to have anti-inflammatory and analgesic properties.
Its limitations are slow resorption, irritation to the periapical tissues, necrosis of bone and cementum and alters the path of erupting teeth.
When ZOE mixture is used, thin mixture is used to coat the walls of the canal, followed by a thick mixture that can be manually condensed into the lumen of the canal.
Barr et al. showed 82.3 percent clinical success rate, Gould showed 86.1 percent, Coll et al. showed 86.1 percent clinical success rate.
Barcelos et al. showed 85 percent of clinical success with ZOE but the overfilling was evident even after evaluation period.
Reference: Pediatric Dentistry by Nikhil Marwah 3rd ed, page no 672 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | A 55-year-old woman who has a history of severe depression and had a radical mastectomy for carcinoma of breast one year back develops polyuria nocturia and excessive thirst -
Laboratory values are as follows: Serum sodium 149 m Eq/L, Serum potassium 3.6 m Eq/L, Serum calcium 9.5 mg/dl, Glucose 110 mg.dl, Bun 30 mg/dl, Urine osmolarity 150 in Osm kg. The most likely clinical diagnosis would be -
Select and explain.
A. Psychogenic polydipsia, B. Renal glycosuria, C. Hypercalcicuria, D. Diabetes insipidus | D: Diabetes insipidus | Answer: D: Diabetes insipidus
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Immunology, Subject name: Microbiology | B cell maturation takes place in -
Select and explain.
A. thymus, B. Lymph node, C. Bone marrow, D. Spleen | C: Bone marrow | Answer: C: Bone marrow
Explanation: The key cells in our immune system are lymphocytes known as B cells and T cells, which originate in our bone marrow. After T cells fuher develop in our thymus. Reff: www.mayoclinic.com |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Structure & Function of Protein, Subject name: Biochemistry | In type I collagen, telopeptide corresponds to-
Select and explain.
A. COOH-terminal with super helical conformation NH2- terminal with super helical conformation, B. Both COOH and NH2-terminals are not super helical conformation, C. Both COOH and NH2-terminals super helical conformation, D. Both COOH and NH2-terminals super helical conformation | D: Both COOH and NH2-terminals super helical conformation | Answer: D: Both COOH and NH2-terminals super helical conformation
Explanation: Ans. D. Both COOH and NH2-terminals superhelical conformationStructure of collagen molecule:-Pro-collagen is comprised of two alpha-1 chains and one alpha-2 chain intertwined into a triple helix. Pro-peptide domains at the carboxy-terminals and amino-terminals are cleaved, resulting in formation of mature collagen. When collagen is degraded, during physiological turnover or pathological adverse remodeling, telopeptide (from the amino- terminals or carboxy-terminals) are cleaved and released into the plasma.Urinary crosslinked N-terminal telopeptide and C terminal telopeptide of type 1 collagen are used as markers of bone resorption in osteoporosis. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Peripheral Nerve Injury, Subject name: Orthopaedics | Arrange the following nerves according to incidence of their involvement in Supra-condylar fracture of humerus a. Median nerve b. Radial nerve c. Anterior interosseous nerve d. Ulnar nerve
Select and explain.
A. c,a,d,b, B. c,a,b,d, C. a,c,b,d, D. d,a,b,c | B: c,a,b,d | Answer: B: c,a,b,d
Explanation: AMRU- Sequence of nerve involvement in SCF A- Anterior Interior Nerve M- Median Nerve R- Radial Nerve U- Ulnar nerve =Mechanism of injury-fall on outstretched hand(FOOSH) =TYPES- extension type most common (95-98%),flexion type less common (<5%). =Complications of supracondylar fracture of the humerus: Malunion leading to cubitus varus (gunstock deformity) Median nerve injury leading to pointing index sign Volkmann's ischemic contracture Vascular compromise - Rx- Urgent reduction in the OT and vascular status reassessed If perfusion is not restored, urgent exploration of the brachial aery is done |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | Movements taking place during abduction of shoulder joint are all except:
Select and explain.
A. Medial rotation of scapula, B. Axial rotation of humerus at acromioclavicular joint, C. Elevation of humerus, D. Movements at clavicular end of sternoclavicular joint | A: Medial rotation of scapula | Answer: A: Medial rotation of scapula
Explanation: Medial rotation of scapula Abduction of the ann involves rotation of the scapula as well as movement at the shoulder joint.For every 3deg abduction, a 2 deg abduction occurs in the shoulder joint & 1 deg abduction occurs by rotation of the scapula (forward rotation round the chest wall i.e. lateral rotation). Rotation of the scapula is facilitated by movements at the sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular joints.Also know: Abduction is initiated by the supraspinatus but the deltoid muscle is the main abductor. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Central Nervous System, Subject name: Pediatrics | A newborn baby has severe facial abnormalities, as shown below. What could be the underlying CNS abnormality in this baby?
Select and explain.
A. Lissencephaly, B. Dandy walker malformation, C. Holoprosencephaly, D. Iniencephaly | C: Holoprosencephaly | Answer: C: Holoprosencephaly
Explanation: c. HoloprosencephalySingle eye (cyclopia) with a tubular-shaped nose (proboscis), are usually seen in a child with Holoprosencephaly |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | Method of chromatography in which molecules that are negatively charged are selectively released from stationary phase into the positively charged molecules in mobile phase is termed as:Affinity chromatography
Select and explain.
A. Affinity chromatography, B. Ion - Exchange chromatography, C. Adsorbtion chromatography, D. Size - Exclusion chromatography | B: Ion - Exchange chromatography | Answer: B: Ion - Exchange chromatography
Explanation: Ion exchange chromatography is the chromatography in which molecules are separated on the basis of charge. Ref: Applications of High Performance Liquid Chromatography By Andrew Pryde, Mary T. Gilbe, Pages 50, 53; Biochemistry By Reginald Garrett, Charles M. Grisham, Page 127. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: ENT | Sphenopalatine foramen is 1 cm behind
Select and explain.
A. Superior Turbinate, B. Middle Turbinate, C. Inferior Turbinate, D. Tonsil | C: Inferior Turbinate | Answer: C: Inferior Turbinate
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | Which ion is added in OPV vaccine acts as stabilizer
Select and explain.
A. Sodium, B. Magnesium, C. Chloride, D. Potassium | B: Magnesium | Answer: B: Magnesium
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pediatrics | Costochondral junction swelling are seen in -
Select and explain.
A. Scurvy, B. Rickets, C. Chondrodystrophy, D. All of the above | D: All of the above | Answer: D: All of the above
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Ocular motility and squint, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Hirschberg test is used to detect
Select and explain.
A. Optic atrophy, B. Squint, C. Glaucoma, D. Field defects | B: Squint | Answer: B: Squint
Explanation: Hirschberg corneal reflex test: It is a rough but handy method to estimate the angle of manifest squint. In it the patient is asked to fixate at point light held at a distance of 33 cm and the detion of the corneal light reflex from the centre of pupil is noted in the squinting eye. Roughly, the angle of squint is 15deg and 45deg when the corneal light reflex falls on the border of pupil and limbus, respectively. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-327 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Central Nervous system, Subject name: Pediatrics | A 6 yr old child with Acute onset of fever of 104o fever developed febrile seizure was treated. To avoid recurrence of seizure attack what should be given ?
Select and explain.
A. Paracetamol 400 mg and phenobarbitone, B. Oral diazepam 6 hourly, C. Paracetamol 400 mg 6 hourly, D. IV Diazepam infusion over 12 hourly | B: Oral diazepam 6 hourly | Answer: B: Oral diazepam 6 hourly
Explanation: Oral clobazam (benzodiazepines) is an effective prophylaxis and is given during fever episodes for 3 days Ref Ghai pediatrics eighth edition pg no 557 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Probing and irrigation is not done in -
Select and explain.
A. Lacrimal fistula, B. Acute dacryocystitis, C. Congenital dacryocystitis, D. Trauma to eye | B: Acute dacryocystitis | Answer: B: Acute dacryocystitis
Explanation: Main treatment consist of topical and systemic antibiotics and anti inflamatory analgesics . Ref :ak khurana 6th edition pg no:395 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Mycology, Subject name: Microbiology | Candidiasis is associated with all except -
Select and explain.
A. Neutropenia, B. IUCD user, C. Diabetes, D. Pregnancy | B: IUCD user | Answer: B: IUCD user
Explanation: 1. Predisposing factors of Candidiasis are: Extremes of age (infancy, old age) Pregnancy Low immunity Patients on broad spectrum antibiotics Diabetes mellitus, febrile neutropenia, Zinc or Iron deficiency. Candida is not associated with IUCD users It can increase chances of PID. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Mood disorders, Subject name: Psychiatry | A 17-year-old boy is diagnosed with schizophrenia. What is the risk that one of his siblings will develop the disease?
Select and explain.
A. 2%, B. 5%, C. 9%, D. 20% | C: 9% | Answer: C: 9%
Explanation: The risk of developing schizophrenia in first degree relatives of schizophrenic patients is elevated compared to the risk of the general population (0.9%). Parents of schizophrenic patients have a lifetime prevalence of 11%, and siblings have a prevalence of 9%. Identical twins have a 50% chance of suffering from schizophrenia if their sibling has it. Children of schizophrenics have a lifetime prevalence of 12.8%. Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 310 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | A 6 year old female child reported with a chief complaint of proclined upper anteriors. Parents give a history of prolonged bottle-feeding and a persistent thumb sucking habit. Clinical examination reveals anterior open bite with proclined upper anterior and retroclined lower anterior teeth and associated tongue thrusting.
In thumb sucking, protraction of the maxillary teeth is seen:
Select and explain.
A. When the pollex is held upward against the palate, B. When the pollex is held downward against the tongue, C. When the pollex is held inward against the cheek, D. None of the above | A: When the pollex is held upward against the palate | Answer: A: When the pollex is held upward against the palate
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Molecular Genetics, Subject name: Biochemistry | Which of the following functionally componetent of largest unit of the ribosomes
Select and explain.
A. tRNA, B. mRNA, C. Catalyze formation of the peptides, D. Formation of the polyribosomes | C: Catalyze formation of the peptides | Answer: C: Catalyze formation of the peptides
Explanation: (Catalyzes formation of the peptides) (436 - Lippincott's 4th)Polyribosome {Polysome) is used when several ribosomes simultaneously translate on a singe mRNA* The large ribosomal subunit catalyzes formation of the peptide bonds that link amino acids residues in a protein.* The small subunit binds mRNA and is responsible for the accuracy of translation by ensuring correct base- pairing between the codon in the m RNA and the anticodon of the tRNA |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: parasitology, Subject name: Microbiology | River blindness is caused by -
Select and explain.
A. Onchocerca, B. Loa loa, C. Ascaria, D. B. Malayi | A: Onchocerca | Answer: A: Onchocerca
Explanation: pathogenesis and clinical features The infective larvae deposited in the skin by the bite of the vector develop at the site to adult worms .Adult worms are seen singly, in pairs , or in tangled masses in the subcutaneous tissues ocular manifestations range from photophobia to gradual blurring of vision , progressing to total blindness. Ref : panikers textbook of medical parasitology 8th edition page 222 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: All India exam, Subject name: Anatomy | Which of the following is false regarding HPV virus regarding oncogenesis
Select and explain.
A. Express oncogenic proteins, B. Inactivate tumor suppressors,, C. Inactivate cyclins, D. Inhibit apoptosis, | C: Inactivate cyclins | Answer: C: Inactivate cyclins
Explanation: High-risk HPV types express oncogenic proteins that inactivate tumour suppressors, activate cyclins, inhibit apoptosis, and combat cellular senescence.Thus, it is evident that HPV proteins promote many of the hallmarks of cancer.(Refer: Robbins & Cotran's - Pathologic Basis of Disease, SAE, 1st edition, Vol I-pg no: 325-327) |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | The contraction of gold alloys on solidifying is
approximately:
Select and explain.
A. 0.40%, B. 1.40%, C. 2.40%, D. 3.40% | B: 1.40% | Answer: B: 1.40%
Explanation: All alloys shrink when they change from liquid to solid. The casting shrinkage in gold alloys is less (1.25 to 1.65%) when compared to base metal alloys.
Mannapalli 3 ed page no 276 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Bleeding disorder, Subject name: Pathology | A 9-year-old girl develops widespread pinpoint skin hemorrhages. She recovered from a fl u-like illness 1 week earlier. Laboratory findings reveal a platelet count of 20,000/mL but no other abnormalities. Her bone marrow shows an increased number of megakaryocytes. The platelet count is normal after 2 months. Which of the following is the appropriate diagnosis?
Select and explain.
A. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation, C. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome, D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura | D: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura | Answer: D: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura -quantitative disorder of platelets caused by antibodies directed against platelet or megakaryocytic antigens -related to antibody-mediated immune destruction of platelets or their precursors. -The peripheral blood smear in ITP exhibits numerous large platelets, and the bone marrow shows a compensatory increase in megakaryocytes. - C/F Petechia Purpura Hemorrhagic bullae Gum bleeding Hematuria Melena *Thrombocytopenia may be observed in the other choices but is usually associated with other systemic signs and symptoms. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Microbiology | When an antigen is administered for the first time to an animal or a human being who has never been exposed to it, the first antibody to develop-
Select and explain.
A. IgG type, B. IgM type, C. IgA type, D. IgE type | B: IgM type | Answer: B: IgM type
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., IgM type |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | In chronic alcoholism which of the following is seen
Select and explain.
A. Delirium tremens, B. Wernike's syndrome, C. Korsakoff psychosis, D. All of the above | D: All of the above | Answer: D: All of the above
Explanation: D i.e. All |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | What is the definition of society –
Select and explain.
A. System of social relationship between individuals, B. Social relationship between families, C. Interaction of individuals and people, D. Relationship of individual family and the country | B: Social relationship between families | Answer: B: Social relationship between families
Explanation: Society
A society is a body of individuals of species, generally seen as a community or group, that is outlined by the bounds of functional interdependence, comprising also possible characters or conditions such as cultural identity, social solidarity or eusociality.
Human societies are characterized by patterns of relationships between individuals that share a distinctive culture or institution.
The importance of society lies in the fact that it controls and regulates the behavior of the individual both by law and customs.
It can exert pressure on the individuals to conform to its norms.
In short, society is a vast network of relationships and compulsions that propel, direct and constrain man's individual efforts.
Sociology is the study of society and social behavior. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Murmurs, Subject name: Medicine | A 50 year old lady comes to your OPD. What is the most probable diagnosis ?
Select and explain.
A. Aoic Stenosis, B. Aoic Regurgitation, C. Mitral Regurgitation, D. Mitral Stenosis | D: Mitral Stenosis | Answer: D: Mitral Stenosis
Explanation: The above image shows Mitral facies which are seen in Mitral stenosis. Mitral stenosis may present with rosy cheeks, whilst the rest of the face has a bluish tinge due to cyanosis. In severe Mitral stenosis low cardiac output state produces vasoconstriction, peripheral cyanosis is often seen in lips, tip of nose and cheeks. Occasionally along with these, malar flush is seen due to vasodilation (vascular stasis) in malar area. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Endocrinology, Subject name: Pediatrics | About Cushing syndrome all are true except:
Select and explain.
A. Purple striae, B. Plethora, C. Hypoglycemia, D. Obesity | C: Hypoglycemia | Answer: C: Hypoglycemia
Explanation: c. Hypoglycemia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2714-2723, Ghai 8/e p 526-527)Hyperglycemia is a feature of Cushing's syndrome and not hypoglycemia. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pediatrics | Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is a disease of –
Select and explain.
A. Neuromuscular junction, B. Sarcolemmal proteins, C. Muscle contractile proteins, D. Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness | B: Sarcolemmal proteins | Answer: B: Sarcolemmal proteins
Explanation: DUCHENNE MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY (PSEUDO HYPERTROPHIC MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY)
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is the most common hereditary neuromuscular disease affecting all races and ethnic groups.
Inheritance: X linked recessive
Presentation occurs between ages 3 and 5
Pathogenesis
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by a mutation in the gene responsible for producing dystrophin.
Dystrophin is `subsarcolemmal protein' localized to the inner surface of the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre.
Dystrophin is part of Dystrophin - Glycoprotein sarcolenzmal complex and this protein deficiency leads to secondary loss of sarcoglycans and dystroglycans resulting in weakness of sarcolemma, causing membrane tears and muscle fibre necrosis.
Clinical manifestations:
Gower's sign is positive
Pseudohypertrophy of the calf is seen (muscle is replaced by fat & connective tissue)
Loss of muscle strength is progressive.
Proximal muscles and neck flexors are involved more
Leg involvement is more severe than arm involvement.
Contractures of heel cords and iliotibial band occurs (by age of 6 years)
progressive scoliosis develops.
Complications:
Chest deformity (scoliosis): Impairs pulmonary function By age of 16 and 18 years patients are predisposed to serious pulmonary fatal infections.
Cardiac: Cardiomyopathy and CHF may be seen Cardiac cause of death is uncommon
Intellectual impairment: is common (IQ is one SD below the mean) |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: New born infants, Subject name: Pediatrics | The ratio of chest compressions to ventilation in a newborn is
Select and explain.
A. 1:01, B. 2:01, C. 3:01, D. 4:01 | C: 3:01 | Answer: C: 3:01
Explanation: If the hea rate does not improve after 30 sec with bag-and-mask (or endotracheal) ventilation and remains below 100 beats/min, ventilation is continued and chest compression should be initiated over the lower third of the sternum at a rate of 90 compressions/min. The ratio of compressions to ventilation is 3 : 1 (90 compressions:30 breaths). If the hea rate remains <60 beats/min despite effective compressions and ventilation, administration of epinephrine should be considered.Ref: Nelson; 20th edition; Page no: 845 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Pericardial Disease, Subject name: Medicine | Auenbrugger's sign is seen in -
Select and explain.
A. Pericardial Effusion, B. Constrictive pericarditis, C. Aortic Regurgitation, D. Mitral Stenosis | A: Pericardial Effusion | Answer: A: Pericardial Effusion
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pericardial Effusion o Auenbruger 's sign is an epicardial bulging due to massive pericardial effusion.Auenbrugeer frsieno It represents bulging of the epigastrium that may be seen in case of severe pericardial effusion.o The auenbrugger s sign is seen in large pericardial effusion.o During a large pericardial effusion an epigastric bulge is present,o This represents large pericardial effusion extending subxiphoid.o Compression of this bulge may cause hemodynamic compromise and cardiac tamponade.Signs in pericardial effusion : -Sign PresentationFriedreich's sign-Sudden collapse inthe distended neck veins with diastole suggests pericardial tamponade.Pitres's sign-Anterior bidging of the lower sternum suggests pericardial effusion.Auenbrugger's sign-Protuberance/Bulging of the epigastrium suggests massive pericardial effusion (Sign on inspection).Sansom s sign-Percussible dullness in the left third intercostal space suggests large pericardial effusion.Greene's sign -Lateral displacement of the percussed cardiac border with expiration suggests a large pericardial effusions.Ebstein's sign A large pericardial effusion can blunt the percussible righ cardiomyopathic angle producing dullness along the lower right sternal border.Rotch's sign-Dullness at the right lower sternal border suggests large pericardial effusion.Moschcowitz s sign-In pericardial effusion, the transition on percussion from the lungs in the right heart border is abrupt.Ewart's sign-A large pericardial effusion produces egophony and bronchial breathing at the lower border of the left scapula.Ewart's second sign-A large pericardial effusion makes the first rib seen more prominent along the sternal border.Dressier 's sign-Is dullness to percussion of the lower one half of the sternum.The Dressier sound is aflat sound on percussion the lower half or two third of the sternum. In the absence of mitral stenosis, this finding 'should at once arouse suspicion of pericardial effusion '.Bamberger's sign-Dullness at the angle of the scapula that disappears when the patient leans forward is Bamberger s sign of pericardial effusion.Dullness at the left lower lung field is Ewart s sign ofpericardial effusion, while right-sided dullness is Conner s sign. Disappearance of Ewart s or Conner s signs when the patient sits up and leans forward is Bambeiger s sign of pericardial effusion. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | Reverse transcriptase is
Select and explain.
A. DNA dependent RNA polymerase, B. RNA dependent DNA polymerase, C. DNA dependent DNA polymerase, D. RNA dependent RNA polymerase | B: RNA dependent DNA polymerase | Answer: B: RNA dependent DNA polymerase
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Physiology | The most sensitive index for renal tubular function is
Select and explain.
A. Specific gravity of urine, B. Blood urea, C. GFR, D. Creatinine clearance | A: Specific gravity of urine | Answer: A: Specific gravity of urine
Explanation: The main function of renal tubules is the concentration of urine and this can be measured by the specific gravity of urine. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: G.I.T, Subject name: Surgery | Skip lesions are seen in
Select and explain.
A. Ulcerative colitis, B. Crohn's disease, C. Typhoid, D. Tuberculosis | B: Crohn's disease | Answer: B: Crohn's disease
Explanation: in ileocaecal tuberculosis,.Ulcerative--commonest 60%. Circumferential transverse often multiple 'girdle' ulcers - with skip lesions. It i common in old, malnourished people. skip lesions are typical in the case of crohn&;s diseaseskip lesions are also observed in wet gangrene and necrotizing enterocolitis . ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 513 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Hospital waste, disaster management and occupational health, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | In TRIAGE system for disaster management, Red colour code indicates?
Select and explain.
A. About to die patients, B. Uninjured patients, C. High priority or transferable cases, D. Dead or moribund cases | C: High priority or transferable cases | Answer: C: High priority or transferable cases
Explanation: Ans. c (High priority or transferable cases) (Ref. Park Textbook of PSM 22nd/pg.741)TRIAGEIt consists of rapidly classifying the injured on the basis of the severities of their injuries and the likelihood of their survival with prompt medical intervention.Four colour coding# Red - High priority or transferable cases# Yellow - medium priority# Green - ambulatory patients# Black - dead or moribund patients. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Radiology | Following are common features of malignant gastric ulcer on barium meal except:
Select and explain.
A. Location on the greater curvature, B. Carman's meniscus sign, C. Radiating folds which do not reach the edge of the ulcer, D. Lesser curvature ulcer with a nodular rim | A: Location on the greater curvature | Answer: A: Location on the greater curvature
Explanation: Ans. Location on the greater curvature |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Musculo Skeletal Disorders, Subject name: Pediatrics | A 6-year-old boy had been in his normal state of good health until a few hours prior to presentation to the emergency department. His mother reports that he began to have difficulty walking, and she noticed that he was falling and unable to maintain his balance. Which of the following is the most likely to allow diagnosis of his condition?
Select and explain.
A. Obtain urine drug screen., B. MRI to evaluate his corpus callosum., C. Close scrutiny of his skin for telangiectasia., D. Perform a muscle biopsy of the gastrocnemius muscle. | A: Obtain urine drug screen. | Answer: A: Obtain urine drug screen.
Explanation: Cerebellar ataxia in childhood can occur in association with infection, metabolic abnormalities, ingestion of toxins, hydrocephalus, cerebellar lesions, multiple sclerosis, labyrinthitis, polyradiculopathy, and neuroblastoma. Although a muscle biopsy might help identify muscular dystrophy, the finding of a triplet repeat expansion on chromosome 9 might identify Friedreich's ataxia, and finding skin telangiectasia might help identify ataxia telangiectasia, none of these would be expected to cause acute ataxia but rather more chronic symptoms. Ingestion (intentional or accidental) of barbiturates, phenytoin, alcohol, and other drugs also must be considered. Agenesis of the corpus callosum is usually diagnosed by imaging studies; however, it does not cause acute ataxia. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | False positive test of protein in dipstick test seen in -a) Chlorpropamideb) IV contrast agentc) Viral infectiond) IV administration of drugs
Select and explain.
A. ab, B. a, C. ad, D. bc | A: ab | Answer: A: ab
Explanation: False positive dipstick test is given by- Concentrated urine, gross hematuria, presence of mucus, semen or leukocytes, highly alkaline urine (>7pH), iodinated IV contrast agent, contaminated with chlorhexidine, benzalkonium, penicillin, aspirins, oral hypoglycemic agents (e.g. chlorpropamide).
False positive dipstick test is given by- Non-albumin proteins, albumin in a small amount. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Subject name: Pathology | 17-year-old boy presented with complain of petechiae. O/E ,sternal tenderness is present. BM biopsy show hypercellularity and more than 20% Lymphoblast. Peripheral smear show ||| TLC and presence of lymphoblast . On X ray. retrosternal mass is seen. All are true about condition patient is suffering except?
Select and explain.
A. It has good prognosis, B. Notch gene mutation present, C. An immature T-cell phenotype (Tdt/CD34/CD7 positive), D. Thymic involvement is seen | A: It has good prognosis | Answer: A: It has good prognosis
Explanation: Above patient is most likely suffering from T-cell ALL. Points in our of above diagnosis: Peak at pubey Retrosternal mass More than 20% Lymphoblast( Tdt +, PAS +) in BM ||| TLC Lymphoblast present in blood Less common than B cell ALL Thymus ++ Notch gene mutation Gain of function Poor prognosis CD1/2/5/7 positive Immunophenotyping of immature T-cell phenotype : Tdt/CD34/CD7 positive |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Best Investigation to assess tubal patency:
Select and explain.
A. Rubin's test, B. HSG, C. Laparotomy, D. Laparoscopic chromtubation | D: Laparoscopic chromtubation | Answer: D: Laparoscopic chromtubation
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Abdomen and pelvis, Subject name: Anatomy | Posterior gastric aery is a branch of
Select and explain.
A. Splenic aery, B. Hepatic aery, C. Left Gastric aery, D. Right Hastric aery | A: Splenic aery | Answer: A: Splenic aery
Explanation: The fundic branches of the stomach can be defined as a group of vessels that can arise either directly or indirectly from the following source aeries: the left inferior phrenic aery, the accessory left hepatic aery, the left gastric aery, the left middle suprarenal aery, the main trunk of the splenic aery Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg277 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Embryology of Ear and Malformations, Subject name: ENT | All are derived from branchial arch EXCEPT?
Select and explain.
A. Ultimobranchial body, B. Stapes, C. Laryngeal cartilage, D. Mandible | A: Ultimobranchial body | Answer: A: Ultimobranchial body
Explanation: Ans. (a) Ultimobranchial bodyRef: Inderbir Singh's Embroyology, 7th ed. /119-120* In humans, the ultimobranchial body is an embryological structure that gives rise to the calcitonin-producing cells--also called parafollicular cells or C cells--of the thyroid gland.* In humans, this body is a derivative of the ventral recess of the fourth pharyngeal pouch.* Stapes: from 2nd Branchial arch* Laryngeal cartilage: from 6th branchial arch* Mandible: from 1st branchial arch |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Ophthalmology | In atropine instillation, all are seen except:
Select and explain.
A. Dilated pupil, B. Paralysis of accommodation, C. Increased water content to tear, D. Decreased water content to tear | C: Increased water content to tear | Answer: C: Increased water content to tear
Explanation: Ans. C.)Increased water content to tear. Causes of decreased tear formation: Idiopathic, congenital alacrima, xerophthalmia, lacrimal gland ablation, and sensory denervation. Collagen vascular diseases, including relapsing polychondritis, rheumatoid ahritis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and systemic lupus erythematosus. Sjogren's syndrome and other autoimmune diseases are associated with aqueous tear deficiency. Drugs such as isotretinoin, sedatives, diuretics, tricyclic antidepressants, antihypeensives, oral contraceptives, antihistamines, nasal decongestants, beta-blockers, phenothiazines, atropine, and pain relieving opiates such as morphine can cause or worsen this condition. Infiltration of the lacrimal glands by sarcoidosis or tumors, or postradiation fibrosis of the lacrimal glands Mode of action of Atropine (i) gives comfo and rest to the eye by relieving spasm of iris sphincter and ciliary muscle, (ii) prevents the formation of synechiae and may break the already formed synechiae, (iii) reduces exudation by decreasing hyperaemia and vascular permeability and(iv) increases the blood supply to anterior uvea by relieving pressure on the anterior ciliary aeries. As a result more antibodies reach the target tissues and more toxins are absorbed. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Ocular trauma , Subject name: Ophthalmology | Chalcosis is seen with-
Select and explain.
A. Pb, B. Cu, C. Fe, D. Hg | B: Cu | Answer: B: Cu
Explanation: *Chalcosis refers to the specific changes produced by the alloy of copper in the eye. Ref: Khurana 7th/e p.452 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Epilepsy and EEG, Subject name: Medicine | In juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME), which is the most common presentation?
Select and explain.
A. GTCS during sleep, B. GTCS on awake state, C. Myoclonus, D. Absence seizures | C: Myoclonus | Answer: C: Myoclonus
Explanation: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JANZ syndrome) - Polygenetic inheritance, Strong family history - Onset: 10 -19 yrs. - Myoclonic Jerk (early morning) and prominent in morning after awakening. Consciousness is preserved unless severe - EEG: 4-6 Hz Polyspike pattern seen. - May develop GTCS in future and in 30% will also develop absence seizure in future Rx - Valproate (lifelong) |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: General Pharmacology, Subject name: Pharmacology | The aim of post marketing pharmacokinetics is
Select and explain.
A. Efficacy of the drug, B. Dosage of the drug, C. Deals with alteration of the drug includes absorption, distribution, binding / storage, D. Safety and comparisions with other medicines | D: Safety and comparisions with other medicines | Answer: D: Safety and comparisions with other medicines
Explanation: (Safety and comparisons with other medicines) (43-Bennett & Brown) (61-62-GG)Pharmacokinetics - what the body does to the drag. This refers to movements of the drug in and alteration of the drug by the body; includes absorption, distribution, binding/localization/storage, biotransformation and excretion of the drug (1-KDT)* Post licensing (marketing) studies of safety and comparisons with other medicines (43-BB)Pharmacodynamics - What the drug does to the body. This includes physiological and biochemical effects of drugs and their mechanism of action at macromolecular/subcellular/ organ system levels.Post marketing detection of adverse reaction - several strategies exist to detect adverse reactions after marketing of a drug, but debate continues about the most efficient and effective method. Formal approaches for estimation of the magnitude of an adverse drug effect are the follow-up or "cohort" study of patients who are receiving a particular drug, the "case control" study where the potential for a drug to cause a particular disease is assessed, and meta-analysis of pre and post marketing (61-62-Goodman & Gillman's 10th) |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | Women receiving estrogen therapy have an increased risk of development of all of the following EXCEPT:
Select and explain.
A. Breast cancer, B. Endometrial cancer, C. Carcinoma of the gall bladder, D. Hepatocellular carcinoma | C: Carcinoma of the gall bladder | Answer: C: Carcinoma of the gall bladder
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Pituitary, Subject name: Physiology | Efferent pathway for milk ej ection reflex -
Select and explain.
A. Prolactin, B. Oxytocin, C. ACTH, D. Growth hormone | B: Oxytocin | Answer: B: Oxytocin
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Oxytocin Milk ejection reflexo Milk ejection is normally initiated by a neuroendocrine reflex.o The receptors involved are the touch receptors, which are plentiful in the breast-especially around the nipple,o Impulses generated in these receptors are relayed to the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei,o Discharge of the neurons causes secretion of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary.o Oxytocin causes contraction of the myoepithelial cells, smooth muscle - like cells that line the ducts of the breast,o This squeezes the milk out of the alveoli of the lactating breast into the large ducts (sinuses) and thence out of the nipple ready to flow into the mouth of the waiting infant,o In lactating women, genital stimulation and emotional stimuli also produce oxytocin secretion, sometimes causing milk to spurt from the breasts. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | All of the following are features of wet gangrene except
Select and explain.
A. Spreads faster, B. Line of demarcation, C. Arterial and venous block, D. Not Localised | B: Line of demarcation | Answer: B: Line of demarcation
Explanation: In wet gangrene there is no line of demarcation. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pediatrics | A 8 yr old boy presents with upper GI bleeding. On examination, he is found to have splenomegaly; there are no signs of ascites, or hepatomegaly; esophageal varices are found on upper GI endoscopy. Most likely diagnosis is:
Select and explain.
A. Budd chiari syndrome, B. Cirrhosis, C. Veno-occlusive disease, D. Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis | D: Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis | Answer: D: Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis
Explanation: The diagnostic criteria of NCPF includes splenomegaly, normal liver function test, esophageal varices (90-95% cases), patent hepatic and poal veins and no evidence of cirrhosis on biopsy. Based on this criteria, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis. Ref: Arun J. Sanyal, Vijay H. Shah (2005), Chapter 25, "Noncirrhotic Poal Hypeension and Poal Vein Thrombosis", In the book, "Poal Hypeension: Pathobiology, Evaluation and Treatment", USA, Pages 411-12 ; Harrison's Internal Medicine, 15th Edition, Page 1759 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | Which of the following NSAID is preferred in treatment of dysmenorrhoea
Select and explain.
A. Indomethacin, B. Ketorolac, C. Mefenamic acid, D. Naproxen | C: Mefenamic acid | Answer: C: Mefenamic acid
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Endocrinology, Subject name: Pharmacology | Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors should not be given in
Select and explain.
A. Sulfonamide hypersensitivity, B. Glaucoma, C. High altitude sickness, D. Metabolic acidosis | A: Sulfonamide hypersensitivity | Answer: A: Sulfonamide hypersensitivity
Explanation: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors(CAIs)are more likely to produce acidosis in patients of COPD,CRF and DM.They are contraindicated in COPD as they may precipitate respiratory acidosis. They are sulfonamides in structure,so should not be given in hypeensitive persons. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Miscellaneous, Subject name: Pathology | True about Insulinoma is:
Select and explain.
A. Alpha cell tumor, B. Most of them are malignant, C. C-peptide level is elevated, D. It is not associated with MEN 1 syndrome | C: C-peptide level is elevated | Answer: C: C-peptide level is elevated
Explanation: Insulinoma b-cell tumor Benign C peptide level is elevated Most common of pancreatic Neuro-endocrine neoplasms Produce sufficient insulin to induce clinically significant hypoglycaemia MEN 1 syndrome- Associated with 3-Ps Pancreas:- Gastrinoma, Insulinoma Pituitary tumor Parathyroid |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Orbit, Subject name: Ophthalmology | A 5-year-old boy presents with Severe ptosis associated with poor levator function. Which of the following will be the treatment?
Select and explain.
A. Frontalis Suspension surgery, B. Levator resection, C. Mullerectomy, D. Fasnella servat operation | A: Frontalis Suspension surgery | Answer: A: Frontalis Suspension surgery
Explanation: Ans. (a) Frontalis Suspension surgery(Ref: Kanski 8/e, p. 45; Parsons 22/e, p. 464; Yanoff 4/e, p. 1273)Brow (frontalis) suspension is used for severe ptosis (> 4 mm) with very poor levator function (< 4 mm) in simple congenital ptosis or occurring due to 3rd nerve palsy, blepharophimosis syndrome and following unsatisfactory previous LPS resection. The tarsal plate is suspended from the frontalis muscle using a sling made of either fascia lata or silicone/prolene |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Urology, Subject name: Surgery | A complicated case of diveicular disease is defined as diveicula with?
Select and explain.
A. Abdominal pain, B. Abscess and perforation, C. Constipation or diarrhea, D. Diveicular bleeding | B: Abscess and perforation | Answer: B: Abscess and perforation
Explanation: .DIVEICULAR DISEASE OF THE COLON * They are acquired herniations of colonic mucosa through circular muscles at the points where blood vessels penetrate (points of least resistance). * It is more commonly localised to sigmoid colon (90%) but occasionally seen in full length of the colon. Rectum is not affected. saint's triad (5%) includes *Diveiculitis *Hiatus hernia *Gallstones.Complications of diveiculitis * Perforation and pericolic abscess or peritonitis * Progressive stenosis and intestinal obstruction * Profuse colonic haemorrhage (17-20%) * Fistula formation (5%)--vesicocolic, vaginocolic, enterocolic, colocutaneous. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 820 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Health care of community & international health, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | Which of the following is a voluntary organization -
Select and explain.
A. TB association of India, B. Directrate of Health Service, C. Indian Medical Council, D. Council of Medical Research | A: TB association of India | Answer: A: TB association of India
Explanation: Voluntary health organisations of India: 1.Indian red cross 2.Hind kusht nivaran sangh 3.Indian council for child welfare 4.Tubercukosis association of India 5.Bharath sevak samaj 6.Central social welfare board 7.The Kasthurba memorial fund 8.Famaily planning association of India 9.All India womens conference 10.All India blind relief society 11.professional bodies 12.International agencies like CARE Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.Pg no: 916 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Thorax, Subject name: Anatomy | SA Node is located at
Select and explain.
A. Upper end crista terminalis, B. Lower end of crista terminalis, C. At opening of IVC, D. At ostium primum | A: Upper end crista terminalis | Answer: A: Upper end crista terminalis
Explanation: SA node is situated at the atriocaval junction in the upper pa of the sulcus terminalis B D CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY UPPER LIMB THORAX-VOLUME 1 SIXTH EDITION Page no-262 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | Process by which an individual gradually aquires cultureand becomes a member of a social group is called ?
Select and explain.
A. Socialization, B. Accultration, C. Socialism, D. Custom | A: Socialization | Answer: A: Socialization
Explanation: Socialization
It is the process by which an individual gradually acquires culture ad becomes a member of a social group.
Example → Internship training programme of doctors gives them an opportunity to learn how to become acceptable to the public at large as doctors.
Socialism
It is a system of production and distribution based on social ownership for raising the living standard of working class.
In other words, socialism is a system of social organization that advocates the vesting of the ownership and control of means of production and distribution, of capital, land, etc. in the community as whole.
In contrast to socialism, Capitalism is an economic and social system in which most trade and industry are privately controlled for profit rather than by the state. The means of production (i.e., capital) are owned, operated and traded for the purpose of generating profits by private individuals, either singly or jointly.
Culture
Culture is defined as "learned behavior which has been socially acquired". |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Anti-Fungal Drugs, Subject name: Pharmacology | Amphotericin B treatment mandates the monitoring of which of the following electrolytes:-
Select and explain.
A. Ca2+, B. Na+, C. K+, D. Cl- | C: K+ | Answer: C: K+
Explanation: Hypokalemia is a serious adverse effect of Amphotericin B hence treatment mandates the monitoring of serum K+levels. ADVERSE EFFECTS OF AMPHOTERICIN B: Infusion related reactions are most common adverse effects and require premedication with antihistaminics or glucocoicoids. Dose limiting toxicity is nephrotoxicity manifested by renal tubular acidosis, hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia. It is most common dose dependent adverse effect. It may also result in anemia (due to decreased erythropoietin). * Intrathecal administration may cause seizures and neurological damage. Liposomal AMB, colloidal dispersion (ABCD) and lipid complex (ABLC) are lipid preparations of amphotericin B. These formulations result in decreased accumulation of the drug in tissues like kidney, thus nephrotoxicity is decreased. Some formulations also show decreased incidence of infusion related reactions. However, these new preparations have similar efficacy and antifungal spectrum as possessed by conventional preparations. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | A 35 year old woman comes to you for routine gynecological examination. You examined her and takes a pap smear which turns out to be normal. She was determined to be a low risk case. At what intervals will you recommend a pap smear examination for her? Note :- She had normal smear in the last 3 consecutive years.
Select and explain.
A. Annually, B. Every 2 year, C. Every 3 year, D. Every 5 yaer | C: Every 3 year | Answer: C: Every 3 year
Explanation: For a woman over the age of 30 years a pap smear is recommended once every 3 years if : HPV DNA is negative, is at low risk for Ca cervix and 3 consecutive annual screening are negative. Also know An annual screening is recommended in women over 30 years if she is : HPV DNA +ve or is at high risk for Ca cervix. Note:- > 70 years, Pap smear need not be done if there have not been a +ve test in the last 10 years. Ref: Essentials of Gynaecology by Lakshmi Seshadri, Edition 1, page - 467 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Amino Acid Metabolic Disorder, Subject name: Biochemistry | Enzyme deficient in alkaptonuria -
Select and explain.
A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase, B. Homogentisate oxidase, C. Tyrosinase, D. None | B: Homogentisate oxidase | Answer: B: Homogentisate oxidase
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Homogentisate oxidaseo Has been explained in previous sessions |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Unknown | Feature of fat embolism includes all except: (PGI Dec 2010)
Select and explain.
A. Tachypnoea, B. Systemic hypoxia may occur, C. Fat globules in urine are diagnostic, D. Commonly Manifests after several days of trauma | D: Commonly Manifests after several days of trauma | Answer: D: Commonly Manifests after several days of trauma
Explanation: Ans: D Commonly Manifests after several days of trauma Commonly Manifests after several days of trauma- this is rarely seen . Hence, this statement is wrong. Correct statement is- Usually manifests itself within 24-48 hours of trauma "Sputum & urine mav reveal the presence of fat a lobulesQ"- Maheswari 3rd/34 Fat Embolism Syndrome | | | | Pathophysiology * Fat embolism is a common phenomenon It is more commonly seen in patients with multiple fractures and in fractures (involving lower limb especially femurQ * Fat originates from the site of trauma, particularly from the injured marrow of the fractured bones and the suggestion that the fat arises from the plasma as a result of agglutination of chylomicrons is not supported by the vivo experiments,. * Circulating fat globules > 10 mm in diameter occur in most adults after close fracture of long bonesQ and histological traces of fat can be found in the lungs and other internal oigans. * Few of these patients develop clinical features similar to ARDS and are k/a fat embolism syndrome Clinical Presentation - The patient is usually a young adult with a lower limb (esp. femur) fracture, most commonly after closed fractures of long bone (esp) shaft femurQ and more so when fractures are multipleQ - It usually manifests itself within 24-48 hoursQ, but occasionally the onset may be delayed for several days. - Early warning signs (with in 72 hours of injury) are a slight rise in temperature (pyrexia) and pulse rate (tachycardia) Q - In more pronounced cases there is breathlessness, mild mental confusion or restlessness , PectechiacQ on chest, axillae, retina & conjuctival folds; progressing to marked respiratory distress & coma in severe cases. Management * Prevention: - Rough handling, inadequate immobilization and long journey to reach trauma center predisposing factors that must be avoided in long bone fractures - Fracture stabilization by IM nail * Stopping the emboli from reaching main circulation bytieing profunda vein (? of doubtful value) * Removing fat emboli from circulation by - Lipolytic agents as heparinQ ( serum lipase activity) - Hypertonic glucose (decrease F FA production) * Offset its effect by - Vasodilation e.g. phenxv benzamine - Prompt correction of hypovlemia - Prophylactic use of O2 - DextranQ (expand plasma volume, reduce RBC aggregation and platelet adherence) - Aprotinin (this protease inhibitor) decrease platelet aggregation and serotonin release) - Alcohol has vasodilator & lipolytic effect. * Treatment of Established Case - The aim of treatment is maintaining adequate oxygen level in the ventilation. - Oxygen is the only therapeutic tool of proven useQ. It should be administered in sufficient amount to maintain arterial PO 2 > 80 mm Hg - O2 toxicity (pneumonitis) is avoided by using O2 cone, below 40%. - Steroids are given to avoid chemical pneumonitis resulting from break down of pulmonary fat emboli into FFA - Surface cooling w ill diminish O2 demand. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: C.N.S, Subject name: Medicine | All of the following hereditary conditions predispose to CNS tumors, except
Select and explain.
A. Neurofibromatosis 1 & 2, B. Tuberous sclerosis, C. Von-Hippel-Lindau syndrome, D. Xeroderma pigmentosum | D: Xeroderma pigmentosum | Answer: D: Xeroderma pigmentosum
Explanation: Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) is a genetic disorder in which there is a decreased ability to repair DNA damage such as that caused by ultraviolet (UV) light. Symptoms may include a severe sunburn after only a few minutes in the sun, freckling in sun exposed areas, dry skin and changes in skin pigmentation.it doesn't cause CNS tumors Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2675 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Lower limb, Subject name: Anatomy | ACL prevents
Select and explain.
A. Anterior displacement of fibula, B. Posterior displacement of tibia, C. Anterior displacement of femur, D. Posterior displacement of femur | D: Posterior displacement of femur | Answer: D: Posterior displacement of femur
Explanation: Anterior cruciate ligament prevents Posterior dislocation of femur on tibia Anterior displacement of tibia on femur Ref: Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basics of Clinical Practice 41 e pg 1394. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Eating Disorders, Subject name: Psychiatry | Which of the following is not true about bulimia nervosa?
Select and explain.
A. Invariable weight loss with endocrine disorder, B. Occurrence of both binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors, C. Recurrent episodes of binge eating, D. Recurrent self - induced vomiting | A: Invariable weight loss with endocrine disorder | Answer: A: Invariable weight loss with endocrine disorder
Explanation: Bulimia nervosa: Characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate ways of stopping weight gain - Purging (self-induced vomiting Weight is normal but there is fear of gaining weight Hypokalemia and Hypochloremia alkalosis Endocrine disorders are seen in anorexia nervosa and not bulimia nervosa. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Sleep disorders and eating disorders, Subject name: Psychiatry | Excessive sexual desire in males is known as
Select and explain.
A. Nymphomania, B. Satyriasis, C. Triabadism, D. Sadism | B: Satyriasis | Answer: B: Satyriasis
Explanation: Disorders of Appetitive Phase (Sexual Desire Disorders)1. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder:This disorder is characterised by an absence of fantasies and desire for sexual activity which is not secondary to other sexual dysfunctions, such as premature ejaculation or dyspareunia.This disorder is many times more common in females (previously called as frigidity) and its prevalence increases with age. 2. Sexual aversion disorder and lack of sexual enjoyment disorder:In the sexual aversion disorder, there is an aversion to and avoidance of all sexual activity with a sexual paner. 3. Excessive sexual drive:Rarely, both men (Satyriasis) and women (Nymphomania) may complain of the excessive sexual drive as a problem. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 126 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | All are true regarding chloroquine, except ?
Select and explain.
A. Acts only on exo erythrocytic cycle, B. Acts on DNA and RNA of parasite, C. Causes pigmentation of nail and mucosa, D. Infected RBC has more drug | A: Acts only on exo erythrocytic cycle | Answer: A: Acts only on exo erythrocytic cycle
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acts only on exoerythrocytic cycle o It is a rabidly acting erythrocytic Schizontacide against all species of plasmodium. o It has no effect on pre and exoerythric stage. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Physiology | In the cell membrane, the following is true -
Select and explain.
A. Lipids are regularly arranged, B. Lipids are symmetrical, C. Protein displaced laterally, D. None | C: Protein displaced laterally | Answer: C: Protein displaced laterally
Explanation: There is lateral diffusion of protein and lipids in membrane. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Breast, Subject name: Pathology | Which of the following benign condition can mimic cancer in the breast?
Select and explain.
A. Accessory Axillary Breast Tissue, B. Fat necrosis, C. Fibrocystic disease, D. Granulomatous Mastitis | B: Fat necrosis | Answer: B: Fat necrosis
Explanation: The presentations of fat necrosis are protean and can closely mimic cancer as a painless palpable mass, skin thickening or retraction, or mammographic densities or calcifications. About half of affected women have a history of breast trauma or prior surgery.Duct ectasia too can mimic cancerDuct ectasia presents as a palpable periareolar mass that is often associated with thick, white nipple secretions and occasionally with skin retraction. Pain and erythema are uncommon. This disorder tends to occur in the fifth or sixth decade of life, usually in multiparous women. The principal significance of this disorder is that the irregular palpable mass mimics the clinical and radiographic appearance of invasive carcinomaRef: Robbins Pathology; 9th edition; Page no: 1047 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus very much wants to become pregnant. What should her physician tell her regarding pregnancy in lupus patients?
Select and explain.
A. There is no increased risk to the baby., B. There may be an increase in cardiovascular malformations, C. There may be an increase in nervous system malformations., D. There may be an increase in spontaneous aboions and prematurity. | D: There may be an increase in spontaneous aboions and prematurity. | Answer: D: There may be an increase in spontaneous aboions and prematurity.
Explanation: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) predominantly affects younger women, and so the question of lupus and pregnancy may arise frequently in clinical practice. Patients with SLE have an increased incidence of spontaneous aboion, fetal death in utero, and prematurity. The mother may experience an exacerbation in the activity of her disease in the third trimester or peripaum period, and it may be difficult to distinguish between active SLE and preeclampsia. Therapy of pregnant patients with SLE is problematic, and the generalist should consult the literature or a specialist when such a patient is encountered.Congenital malformations (choices B, C, and D) are not a complication of pregnancies in patients with SLE. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 54. Connective-Tissue Disorders. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Lacrimal Apparatus and Eyelid Disorders, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Not true regarding meibomian glands
Select and explain.
A. Arranged veically, B. More in upper lid than in lower lid, C. Modified sebaceous glands, D. Open in follicles of eyelashes | D: Open in follicles of eyelashes | Answer: D: Open in follicles of eyelashes
Explanation: * Meibomian glands open in eyelid margins Meibomian glands Arranged veically More in upper lid than in lower lid Modified sebaceous glands Open in eyelid margins Constitute the oily layer of tear film Internal Hordeolum is the infection of meibomian gland |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Glaucoma, Subject name: Ophthalmology | The laser procedure, most often used for treating iris neovascularization is -
Select and explain.
A. Goniophotocoagulation, B. Laser trabeculoplasty, C. Panretinal photocoagulation (PRP), D. Laser iridoplasty | C: Panretinal photocoagulation (PRP) | Answer: C: Panretinal photocoagulation (PRP)
Explanation: Panretinal photocoagulation is used to prevent fuher neovascularization Ref:Comprehensive ophthalmology-AK Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no:250 Ref:Comprehensive ophthalmology-AK Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no:250 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | All of the following drugs are used in the treatment of Pneumocystis carni pneumonia, except?
Select and explain.
A. Pentamidine, B. Dapsone, C. Cotrimoxazole, D. Fluoroquinolones | D: Fluoroquinolones | Answer: D: Fluoroquinolones
Explanation: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Cotrimoxazole) is the drug of choice of Pneumocystis carini pneumonia. Other drugs effective in its treatment are dapsone, pentamidine, atovaquone, primaquine and clindamycin. Methylprednisolone is also indicated in HIV positive patients with moderate to severe PCP. Fluoroquinolones are not indicated in its treatment. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Nutrition, Food Security, and Health, Subject name: Pediatrics | Best marker for chronic PEM is -
Select and explain.
A. Weight for age, B. Height for age, C. Weight for Height, D. Head circumference | B: Height for age | Answer: B: Height for age
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Height for age Assessment of PEM* Weight for age = Acute* Height for age = Chronic* Weight for Height = Acute on chronicAge dependent factors* Weight# Height* Head circumference# Chest circumferenceAge independent factor* Mid arm circumference# Kanawati index* Me Laren's index# Quae stick* Shakir tape# Skin fold thickness* Rao & Singh# Dugdale* Jelleff's ration |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Autoimmune Skin Disorders, Subject name: Skin | All are seen in reiter's syndrome except?
Select and explain.
A. Subcutaneous nodules, B. Oral ulcers, C. Keratoderma blenorrhagicum, D. Circinate balanitis | A: Subcutaneous nodules | Answer: A: Subcutaneous nodules
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Subcutaneous nodules Arthropathy following a recent leisure trip suggests reactive arthritis.Eye involvement points towards Reiter's syndrome.Reactive arthritis refers to acute nonpurulent arthritis, complicating an infection elsewhere in the body.Reiter's syndrome is one of the classic forms of reactive arthritis i.e. an aseptic inflammatory arthritis associated with nonspecific urogenital or bowel infection (with manifestations in the eye).Reactive arthritis is frequently associated with the human leucocyte antigen B27 (HLA - B27) Q haplotype.The etiology of reactive arthritis remains uncertain. The most accepted theory about the pathophysiology of reactive arthritis involves initial activation by a microbial antigen followed by an autoimmune reaction that involves skin, eyes and joints.Two forms of reactive arthritis have been recognized a sexually transmitted form and a dysenteric form.Gastrointestinal infections with, shigella Q, salmonella Q and Campylobacter species and genitourinary infections with chlamydia trachomatis Q have been found to trigger reactive arthritis.The characteristic triad of Reiter's syndromeArthritis Q (polyarthritis, non erosive)Urethritis QConjunctivitis Q |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Microbiology | L1 L2 L3 serovar of chlamydia trachomatis cause ?
Select and explain.
A. Trachoma, B. Inclusion conjuctivitis, C. NGU, D. LGV | D: LGV | Answer: D: LGV
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., LGV |