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This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Metabolism of carbohydrate, Subject name: Biochemistry | True about Gaucher disease
Select and explain.
A. Due to deficiency of enzymes sphingomyelinase, B. Due to deficiency of enzyme b-Gluco-cerebroisidase, C. Deposition of glucosylceramide, D. Foam cell deposition | B: Due to deficiency of enzyme b-Gluco-cerebroisidase | Answer: B: Due to deficiency of enzyme b-Gluco-cerebroisidase
Explanation: This is an inborn error of metabolism due to failure of degradation of glucocerebrosides. The enzyme beta-glucosidase is deficient in this condition.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 192 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Stages of pneumonia are all except:-
Select and explain.
A. Stage of Exudation, B. Stage of Red hepatisation, C. Stage of Cavitation, D. Stage of Resolution | C: Stage of Cavitation | Answer: C: Stage of Cavitation
Explanation: The stages of pneumonia/consolidation are:-
i. Stage of Exudation
ii. Stage of Red hepatisation
iii. Stage of Grey hepatisation
iv. Stage of Resolution |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | Most common Complication of TIPSS procedure
Select and explain.
A. Heart failure, B. Hepatic Encephalopathy, C. Thrombosis, D. Recurrent Variceal bleed | B: Hepatic Encephalopathy | Answer: B: Hepatic Encephalopathy
Explanation: Since systemic blood is shunted toxins ( NH3) travel to brain
causing encephalopathy. Hence TIPSS is contra indicated in
encephalopathy patients. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Schirmer's test detects abnormality of which nerve?
Select and explain.
A. Oculomotor, B. Facial, C. Hypoglossal, D. Glossopharyngeal | B: Facial | Answer: B: Facial
Explanation: (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 389)*Schirmer's test is used for the production of tear by lacrimal glands*Preganglion secretory fibers for lacrimal gland arise from the lacrimatory nucleus and pass through the facial nerve, then to its greater petrosal branch. Greater petrosal nerve forms nerve to the pterygoid canal to reach pterygopalatine ganglion. Postganglionic fibers supply lacrimal gland*Thus, lesion in any structure of this pathway will have positive Schirmer's test |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Respiratory system, Subject name: Medicine | All except one is required for the diagnosis of obesity hypoventilation syndrome
Select and explain.
A. Hypeension, B. Sleep disorder breathing, C. BMI more than or equal to 30 kg/m2, D. PaCO2 more than or eqal to 45 mmHg | A: Hypeension | Answer: A: Hypeension
Explanation: Repeated |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Miscellaneous, Subject name: Surgery | OCP are associated with which of the following complication (Repeat 2009)
Select and explain.
A. Papilledema, B. optic neuritis, C. colourblindness, D. Papillitis | B: optic neuritis | Answer: B: optic neuritis
Explanation: Ans b (Optic neuritis)Ophthalmic complication of OCP central retinal artery occlusion prethrombosis of central retinal vein perivasculitis, inflammation of anterior segment of the eye ' macular hemorrage Papillitis & lesions of optic nerve causing variable degree of visual loss |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Respiratory chain, Subject name: Biochemistry | Hydrogen sulphide acts on which complex of cytochrome oxidase
Select and explain.
A. Comlex I, B. Comlex II, C. Comlex III, D. Comlex IV | D: Comlex IV | Answer: D: Comlex IV
Explanation: Complex IV inhibitors i. Carbon monoxide, inhibits cellular respiration ii. Cyanide (CN-) iii. Azide (N3-) iv. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S)Ref: DM Vasudevan Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 234 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | Which structure lies midway between the ASIS & pubic symphysis :
Select and explain.
A. Femoral aery, B. Deep inguinal ring, C. Superior epigastric aery, D. Inguinal ligament | A: Femoral aery | Answer: A: Femoral aery
Explanation: A. i.e. Femoral aery Femoral aery traverses the femoral triangle from its base (which is formed by inguinal ligament - attached between ASIS and Pubic tubercle) at midinguinal pointQDeep inguinal ring lies 1/2 inch above midinguinal pointQ; Superficial inguinal ring lies I/2 inch bellow midinguinal point; and Saphenous opening lies 4 cm below & lateral to the pubic tubercle. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Virology, Subject name: Microbiology | First antibody to appear in hepatitis -
Select and explain.
A. IgM anti-Hbe, B. IgG-anti-Hbe, C. IgM-anti-HBc, D. IgM anti-HBs | C: IgM-anti-HBc | Answer: C: IgM-anti-HBc
Explanation: Anti-HBV appears in serum a week or two after the appearance of HBsAg. It is therfore the earliest antibody marker to be seen in blood? long before anti-HBe or anti-HBs. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-546 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | In which of the following vasculitis lung involvement does not occur:
Select and explain.
A. Eosoniphilic granulomatosis with vasculitis, B. Polyaeritis nodosa (PAN), C. Microscopic polyangitis, D. Granulomatosis with polyangitis | B: Polyaeritis nodosa (PAN) | Answer: B: Polyaeritis nodosa (PAN)
Explanation: Answer- B. Polyaeritis nodosa (PAN)Microscopic polyangiitis (microscopic polyaeritis, hypersensitivity, or leukocytoclastic vasculitis): This type of necrotizing vasculitis generally affects aerioles, capillaries, and venule.Wegener granulomatosis (Granulomatosis with polyangitis)- is a necrotizing vasculitis characterized by th e triad ofacute necrotizing granulomasnecrotizing or granulomatous vasculitisrenal disease in the form of focal necrotizing often crescentic, glomerulitis"Churg- Strauss syndrome(allergic granulumatosis and angiitis) is a multisystem diseases with cutaneous involvement gastrointestinal tract bleeding, and renal disease. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: A.N.S., Subject name: Pharmacology | Which of the following drug is commonly used in narcoanalysis?
Select and explain.
A. Atropine sulfate, B. Scopolamine hydrochloride, C. Phenobarbitone, D. Morphine | B: Scopolamine hydrochloride | Answer: B: Scopolamine hydrochloride
Explanation: Ans. (B) Scopolamine hydrochloride(Ref: J Psychiatry and Law 1993:3:447-471)Controlled administration of intravenous hypnotics to obtain information from subjects who are unable or unwilling to provide it otherwise, is known as Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis.Drugs used for narcoanalysis are:[?]Ethanol[?]Scopolamine[?]Temazepam[?]Barbiturates like Thiopentone and AmobarbitalThese drugs are also known as truth drug or truth serum.Phenobarbitone is not used, rather amobarbital is used for narcoanalysis. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Oxygen dependent bacterial killing, Subject name: Pathology | The function common to neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages is:
Select and explain.
A. Immune response is reduced, B. Phagocytosis, C. Liberation of histamine, D. Destruction of old erythrocytes | B: Phagocytosis | Answer: B: Phagocytosis
Explanation: Phagocytic cells are: neutrophils monocytes macrophages |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | Which of the following enzyme is involved in rejoining sho fragments of DNA on the lagging strand?
Select and explain.
A. DNA Ligases, B. DNA Helicase, C. DNA Topoisomerase, D. DNA Polymerase | A: DNA Ligases | Answer: A: DNA Ligases
Explanation: The okasaki fragments that are sho segments of DNA formed on the lagging strand of DNA in the 5'-3' direction are joined by DNA ligase. Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry By D M Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Pages 347-8 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Adverse Drug Effect, Subject name: Pharmacology | Ototoxicity caused by:
Select and explain.
A. Vancomycin, B. Streptomycin, C. Ampicillin, D. Rifampicin | B: Streptomycin | Answer: B: Streptomycin
Explanation: Ans. (b) StreptomycinRef : KDT 6th ed. / 743-44* Streptomycin has been assigned to pregnancy category D by the FDA.* Streptomycin crosses the placenta; reported cord concentrations have been equal to or less than the mothers serum concentration.* There are reports of fetal eighth cranial nerve damage with subsequent bilateral deafness. Most authorities, including the Centers for Disease Control and the American Thoracic Society, discourage the use of streptomycin during pregnancy due to the risk of fetal ototoxicity. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anaesthesia | The instrument below is used for
Select and explain.
A. Endoscopic ultrasound probe, B. Oesophageal temperature probe, C. Enterography, D. None | B: Oesophageal temperature probe | Answer: B: Oesophageal temperature probe
Explanation: This is used for monitoring temperature, core temperature monitoring. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Sympathetic System, Subject name: Pharmacology | Alkalinization of urine is required to treat toxicity of all except:
Select and explain.
A. Salicylates, B. Barbiturates, C. Amphetamine, D. Methotrexate | C: Amphetamine | Answer: C: Amphetamine
Explanation: Changes in urinary pH affect tubular reabsorption of drugs that are paially ionized - * Weak bases are ionize more and are less reabsorbed in acidic urine.* Weak acids ionize more and are less reabsorbed in alkaline urine. Urine is alkalinized in barbiturate, methotrexate and salicylate poisoning. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Endocarditis, Subject name: Pathology | Which of the following is the feature of vegetations in Libmann Sacks endocarditis?
Select and explain.
A. Large and fragile, B. Small way along the line of closure of valve, C. Small or medium sized on either or both sides of valve, D. Small bland vegetations | C: Small or medium sized on either or both sides of valve | Answer: C: Small or medium sized on either or both sides of valve
Explanation: Mitral and tricuspid valvulitis with small, sterile vegetations, called Libman-Sacks endocarditis, is occasionally encountered in systemic lupus erythematosus. The lesions are small (1 to 4 mm in diameter), single or multiple, sterile, pink vegetations with a way (verrucous) appearance. They may be located on the undersurfaces of the atrioventricular valves, on the valvular endocardium, on the chords, or on the mural endocardium of atria or ventricles. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Human identification, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | Permanent impairment of fingerprints occurs in all except
Select and explain.
A. Leprosy, B. Acanthosis nigricans, C. Electrical injuries, D. Radiation injuries | B: Acanthosis nigricans | Answer: B: Acanthosis nigricans
Explanation: Permanent impairment of fingerprints occurs in: Leprosy Electrical injuries Radiation injuries Ridge alteration occur in: Acanthosis nigricans Scleroderma |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Respiratory System Pa 3, Subject name: Physiology | True about ascent to high altitude:
Select and explain.
A. Respiratory acidosis, B. Polycythemia due to dehydration, C. Acute mountain sickness stas to develop on 7th day of ascent, D. Acetazolamide may be given prophylactically | D: Acetazolamide may be given prophylactically | Answer: D: Acetazolamide may be given prophylactically
Explanation: Respiratory alkalosis occurs Polycythemia is due to increased erythropoietin Acute mountain sickness develops 8-24 hr after arrival at altitude and lasts 4-8 days. Acute altitude illness: 3 forms Acute mountain sickness (AMS) The pathophysiology of AMS is not well understood. The essential factor responsible for this condition is hypoxemia High altitude cerebral edema (HACE) High altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Microbiology | Phenol test or Reidel Walker test is done to determine:
Select and explain.
A. Hardness of water, B. Chlorine demand, C. Quality of disinfectant, D. Efficacy of a disinfectants | D: Efficacy of a disinfectants | Answer: D: Efficacy of a disinfectants
Explanation: Ans. d. Efficacy of a disinfectants |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | The instrument shown here is useful for:
Select and explain.
A. To condense amalgam, B. For vital bleaching, C. Removal of crown, D. Removal of broken instrument | C: Removal of crown | Answer: C: Removal of crown
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Unknown | Goodpasture syndrome has antibodies against:
Select and explain.
A. Collagen 1, B. G-y or x-y of collagen, C. Collagen 4, D. Collagen 2 | C: Collagen 4 | Answer: C: Collagen 4
Explanation: (Refer: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8thedition, pg no: 709) |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Zygote is dependent on which of the following for its nutrition -
Select and explain.
A. Deutoplasm, B. Secretions from wall of fallopian tube and uterus, C. Sperm carbohydrate stores, D. All the above | D: All the above | Answer: D: All the above
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above While zygote is passing down the fallopian tube and after a brief period as it enters the uterus, it depends for its nutrition on the yolk sac granules (deutoplasm) embedded in its cytoplasm and on the fluid medium surrounding it which is secreted by the walls of the uterine tube and uterus.It also derives its energy from the stored carbohydrate in sperm, whichfeilized the ovum, |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Urine is collected for examination in a pregnant female by :
Select and explain.
A. Mid stream collection, B. Suprapubic puncture, C. Catheterisation, D. Early morning sample | D: Early morning sample | Answer: D: Early morning sample
Explanation: Early morning sample |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Metabolism of nucleic acids, Subject name: Biochemistry | Okazaki fragments are found during
Select and explain.
A. Replication, B. Translation, C. Translocation, D. Transcription | A: Replication | Answer: A: Replication
Explanation: DNA synthesis is always into 5&; to 3&; direction in both strands The strand which is discontinuously synthesized is referred to as the &;lagging strand &; otherwise called the retrograde strand The small DNA molecules attached to its own primer RNA are called Okazaki fragments The synthesis along the lagging strand is in 5&; to 3&; directionRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 580, 581 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Which type of pelvis is associated with increased incidence of 'face to pubis' delivery:
Select and explain.
A. Gynaecoid pelvis, B. Anthropoid pelvis, C. Android pelvis, D. Platypelloid pelvis | B: Anthropoid pelvis | Answer: B: Anthropoid pelvis
Explanation: As discussed in the text in Table 1.1 face-to-pubis delivery is common in anthropoid pelvis. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Virology, Subject name: Microbiology | HIV primarily replications in which cells -
Select and explain.
A. CD4T-cells, B. CD8 T-cells, C. Neutrophils, D. Follicular dendritic cells | A: CD4T-cells | Answer: A: CD4T-cells
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., CD4 T-cells * The receptor for the virus is the CD4 antigen on surface. The cells affected are :# CD4 T Cells (major target)# B lymphocytes# Monocytes and macrophages# Langerhans cells in dermis# Glial cells and microglia in the CNS# Follicular dendritic cells from tonsils can be infected by HIV without the involvement of CD4 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Occupational Health, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | According to The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923, which of the following is considered an occupational disease?
Select and explain.
A. Typhoid, B. Anthrax, C. Tetanus, D. Dengue | B: Anthrax | Answer: B: Anthrax
Explanation: Ans. b. Anthrax (Ref: style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 0 8px; text-indent: 0">According to The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923, Anthrax is considered an occupational disease.List of Occupational Diseases as per Employee Compensation Act 1923 (Workmen Compensation Act, 1923)Part APart BPart C* Infectious and parasitic diseases contracted in an occupation where there is a particular risk of contamination (Anthrax)* Diseases caused by work in compressed air* Diseases caused by lead or its toxic compounds* Poisoning by nitrous fumes* Poisoning by organophosphorus compounds.* Diseases caused by phosphorus or its toxic compounds.* Diseases caused by mercury or its toxic compounds* Diseases caused by benzene or its toxic homologues.* Diseases caused by nitro and amido toxic derivatives of benzene or its homologues.* Diseases caused by chromium, or its toxic compounds* Diseases caused by arsenic or its toxic compounds.* Diseases caused by radioactive substances or radiations.* Primary epitheliomatous cancer of the skin, caused by tar, pitch, bitumen, mineral oil, anthracence, or the compounds, products or residues of these substances.* Disease caused by the toxic halogen derivatives of hydrocarbons (of the aliphatic and aromatic series).* Diseases caused by carbon disulphide.* Occupational cataract due to infrared radiations.* Diseases caused by manganese or its toxic compounds.* Skin diseases caused by physical, chemical or biological agents not included in other items.* Hearing impairment caused by noise.* Poisoning by dinitrophenol or a homologue or by substituted or by the salts of such substances.* Diseases caused by beryllium or its toxic compounds.* Diseases caused by cadmium or its toxic compounds.* Occupational asthma caused by recognized sensitizing agents inherent to the work process.* Diseases caused by fluorine or its toxic compounds.* Diseases caused by nitroglycerine or other nitro acid esters.* Diseases caused by alcohols and ketones.* Diseases caused by asphyxiant carbon monoxide, and its toxic derivatives, hydrogen sulphide.* Lung cancer and mesotheliomas caused by asbestos.* Primary neoplasm of the epithelial lining of the urinary bladder or the kidney or the ureter.* Snow blindness in snow bound areas.* Disease due to effect of cold in extreme cold climate.* Pneumoconiosis caused by sclerogenic mineral dust silicosis, anthracosilicosis, asbestosis) and silicotubercuiosis provided that silicosis is an essential factor in causing the resultant incapacity or death.* Bagassosis* Bronchopulmonary diseases caused by cotton, flax hemp and sisal dust (Byssinosis).* Extrinsic allergic alveolitis caused by the inhalation of organic dusts.* Bronchopulmonary disease caused by hard metals.* Acute pulmonary edema of high altitude. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Pelvis and Hip Injury, Subject name: Orthopaedics | Radiological factors indicating an unstable pelvis are all except:
Select and explain.
A. Posterior sacroiliac complex displacement by > 1 cm, B. Avulsion fracture of sacral or ischial end of the sacrospinous ligament, C. Avulsion fractures of the L5 transverse process, D. Isolated disruption of pubic symphysis with pubic diastasis of 2 cm | D: Isolated disruption of pubic symphysis with pubic diastasis of 2 cm | Answer: D: Isolated disruption of pubic symphysis with pubic diastasis of 2 cm
Explanation: Radiographic factors indicating unstable pelvis are: Posterior sacroiliac complex displacement >1cm Avulsion fracture of sacral or ischial end of the sacrospinous ligament. Avulsion fractures of the L5 transverse process Disruption of pubic symphysis with pubic diastasis of 2 cm with posterior pelvic injury or injury to anterior/ posterior sacroiliac ligament or sacrospinous ligaments. Presence of gap rather than impaction in the posterior pelvic ring. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Angioid streak is seen in -
Select and explain.
A. Tuberous sclerosis, B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum, C. Sturge weber syndrome, D. Septo optic dysplasia | B: Pseudoxanthoma elasticum | Answer: B: Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | Xiphoid process fuses with body of sternum by:
Select and explain.
A. 10 years, B. 20 years, C. 30 years, D. 40 years | D: 40 years | Answer: D: 40 years
Explanation: 40 years |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Uveitis is caused by –a) TBb) Staphylococcusc) Streptococcusd) Klebsiellae) E.Coli
Select and explain.
A. ab, B. abc, C. acd, D. bcd | B: abc | Answer: B: abc
Explanation: TB causes chronic granulomatous uveitis.
Staphylococcus and streptococcus cause acute non-granulomatous pyogenic uveitis. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Disorders in Menstruation, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | A young female presented to you with primary amenorrhea. Examination reveals normal breast development and absent axillary hairs. Pelvic examination shows a normally developed vagina with clitoromegaly. On ultrasound, gonads are visible in the inguinal region. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select and explain.
A. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome, B. Partial androgen insensitivity syndrome, C. Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome, D. Gonadal dysgenesis | B: Partial androgen insensitivity syndrome | Answer: B: Partial androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation: Ans. is b, i.e. Partial androgen insentivity syndromeIn the question patient has 1deg amenorrhea:* Breast development is normal and absent axillary hair. (This means it cannot be Mayer Rokitansky kiister hauser syndrome --where Breast and pubic as well as axillary hair are well developed and it cannot be Gonadal dysgenesis as none of the secondary sexual characteristics are developed in it).We are left with 2 options:Option a --Complete androgen insensitivityOption b --Partial androgen insensitivityIn both these conditions --Breast development will be normal and pubic hair and axillary hair will be absent but clitoromegaly will be seen in partial androgen insensitivity only. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | A patient presents with thrombocytopenia, eczema and recurrent infections. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Select and explain.
A. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome, B. A beta gammaglobulinemia, C. Chediak higashi syndrome, D. Lazy leukocyte syndrome | A: Wiskott Aldrich syndrome | Answer: A: Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
Explanation: Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS) is an X-linked platelet/immunologic disorder caused by mutations in the WASP gene. The triad of eczema, recurrent infections, and microthrombocytopenia that characterizes WAS only occurs in 27% of the cases. The immunologic defects include low serum concentrations of IgM, while IgA and IgG are normal and IgE is frequently increased. Ref: The Elements of Immunology By Fahim Halim Khan, 2009, Page 413 ; Harrison's 17th ed chapter 310 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | A baby presents with refusal to feed, skin lesions, seizures, ketosis organic acids in urine with normal ammonia; likely diagnosis is:
Select and explain.
A. Proprionic aciduria, B. Multiple carboxylase deficiency, C. Maple syrup urine disease, D. Urea cycle enzyme deficiency | B: Multiple carboxylase deficiency | Answer: B: Multiple carboxylase deficiency
Explanation: Baby in the above mentioned case scenario is showing signs and symptoms of multiple carboxylase deficiency such as dermatitis severe metabolic acidosis, organic acid excretion. Ref: Essentials of Pediatrics By Nelson, 16th Edition, Pages 356 ; The Embryo: Scientific Discovery and Medical Ethics By Shraga Blazer, Page 246 ; NORD Guide to Rare Disorders: National Organization for Rare Disorders, Page 483 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry), Subject name: Biochemistry | Carbamoyl phosphate intermediates the synthesis of
Select and explain.
A. Urea, B. Urea & Pyrimidine, C. Uric acid, D. Ketone body | B: Urea & Pyrimidine | Answer: B: Urea & Pyrimidine
Explanation: (B) Urea & Pyrimidine # Biosynthesis of urea begins with the condensation of CC>2, NHs and ATP to form carbamoyl phosphate, a reaction catalyzed by carbamoyl phosphate synthase I which is a mitochondrial enzyme, and rate limiting or pacemaker enzyme and the enzyme is active only in the presence of its allosteric activator N-acetylglutamate, which enhances the affinity of synthase for ATP. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Bacteriology, Subject name: Microbiology | Which of the following is not true about Diplococcus pneumoniae
Select and explain.
A. Bile solubility, B. Optochin resistance, C. Causes Meningitis, D. Possess Capsule | B: Optochin resistance | Answer: B: Optochin resistance
Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae is optochin sensitive. Optochin sensitivity: the sensitivity of Streptococcus pneumoniae to optochin is useful in differentiating it from other streptococci. When a disc impregnated with optochin is applied on a plate of blood agar inoculated with Streptococcus pneumoniae, a wide zone of inhibition appears on incubation. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 225 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: JIPMER 2019, Subject name: Pharmacology | A patient on Bilonatumomab for refractory B cell All is now resistance to the drug. Which drug to be used:-
Select and explain.
A. Vorinostat, B. Brentuximab, C. Pembrolizumab, D. Tisagenlecleucel | C: Pembrolizumab | Answer: C: Pembrolizumab
Explanation: Drug Mechanism Use Vorinostat HDAC inhibitor Cutaneous T cell lymphoma Brentuximab Man against CD30 Hodgkin lymphoma Pembrolizumab PD-1 Melanoma Lung Cancer Head and neck cancer Tisagenlecleucel Ca therapy ALL Blinatumomab Bispecific t-cell engages ( targets CD19 and CD3) ALL |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Ear, Subject name: ENT | Horizontal semicircular canal responds to
Select and explain.
A. Horizontal acceleration, B. Rotational acceleration, C. Gravity, D. Antero-posterior acceleration | B: Rotational acceleration | Answer: B: Rotational acceleration
Explanation: The three canals lie at right angles to each other but the one which lies at right angles to the axis of rotation is stimulated the most.Thus horizontal canal will respond maximum to the rotation on the veical axis. (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE and THROAT by PL Dhingra; 6th edition; page no.17) |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Upper limb, Subject name: Anatomy | Roof of the Anatomical snuff box is formed by the
Select and explain.
A. Radial aery, B. Basilic aery, C. Sup branch of radial nerve, D. Sup branch of ulnar nerve | C: Sup branch of radial nerve | Answer: C: Sup branch of radial nerve
Explanation: Anatomical snuff box boundaries: Lateral wall Abductor pollicis longus Extensor pollicis brevis Medial wall Extensor pollicis longus Roof Cephalic vein Sup branch of radial nerve Floor Radial styloid, scaphoid, trapezium,1st meta carpal Content Radial Aery Ref: Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basics of Clinical Practice 41 e pg 893. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Thermal injuries, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | Which of these differentiates between ante moem and post moem burns?
Select and explain.
A. Heat rupture, B. Heat Hematoma, C. Soot paicles up to terminal bronchioles, D. Pugilistic attitude | C: Soot paicles up to terminal bronchioles | Answer: C: Soot paicles up to terminal bronchioles
Explanation: SPECIFIC FINDINGS IN ANTEMOEM BURNS 1.SOOT PAICLES UPTO THE LEVEL OF TERMINAL BRONCHIOLE. 2. PRESENCE OF CARBOXYHEMOGLOBIN IN BLOOD. 3. Cyanide IN BLOOD 4. CURLING ULCER IN FIRST PA OF DUODENUM. NON SPECIFIC FINDINGS IN BURNS( ANTEMOEM + POSTMOEM BURNS) 1. PUGILISTIC ATTITUDE OR HEAT STIFFENING. 2. HEAT RUPTURE 3. HEAT HEMATOMA 4. HEAT FRACTURE. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Female Reproductive System, Subject name: Physiology | Arrange the following in sequential order of their involvement in estrogen synthesis: A. Progesterone B. Androgen in granulosa cell C. Androgen in theca cell D. Aromatase
Select and explain.
A. B-A-D-C, B. A-C-D-B, C. D-C-A-B, D. A-C-B-D | D: A-C-B-D | Answer: D: A-C-B-D
Explanation: Interaction of follicular theca and granulosa cells for production of estrogens. The theca cells, under the control of luteinizing hormone (LH), produce androgens that diffuse into the granulosa cells. In mature follicles, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) acts on granulosa cells to stimulate aromatase activity, which conves the androgens to estrogens. AC - Adenylate cyclase; ATP - Adenosine triphosphate; cAMP - Cyclic adenosine monophosphate; LDL - Low density lipoproteins. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Electrocardiography, Subject name: Medicine | Left bundle branch block (LBBB) on ECG can suddenly develop in all of the following except:
Select and explain.
A. Acute MI, B. Ashman phenomenon, C. Hypokalemia, D. Hyperkalemia | B: Ashman phenomenon | Answer: B: Ashman phenomenon
Explanation: Ans. b. Ashman phenomenon (Ref: Harrison 18/e p1835) style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-weight: bold; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 0 8px; text-indent: 0">Ashman phenomenon:Ashman phenomenon is an intraventricular conduction abnormality caused by a change in the heart rate.Wide QRS complex) on the surface ECGA RBBB pattern is more common because of the longer refractory period of the right bundle branch, although association with LBBB has been documentedCauses of Left Bundle Branch Block (LBBB)* Aortic stenosis* Dilated cardiomyopathy* Acute myocardial infarction* Extensive coronary artery disease* Primary disease of the cardiac electrical conduction system* Long standing hypertension leading to aortic root dilatation and AR* Hypokalemia* Hyperkalemia |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Microbiology | C-3 convertase in alternate complement pathway -
Select and explain.
A. C4b2a, B. C3b, C. C3bBb, D. C3a | C: C3bBb | Answer: C: C3bBb
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Bacteriology, Subject name: Medicine | Treatment of latent TB infection in Tuberculin positive, HIV positive patients:
Select and explain.
A. INH biweekly for 9 month, B. 2(HRZ)3 + 4(HR)3, C. Rifampicin biweekly for 6 months, D. Pyrazinamide daily for 6 months | A: INH biweekly for 9 month | Answer: A: INH biweekly for 9 month
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1NH biweekly for 9 month Dosing regimens for treatment of latent tuberculosis* AdultsChildren <12IsoniazidStandard regimen:o 300 mg PO daily for nine months Alternate regimens:o 300 mg PO daily for six months900 mg PO twice weeklyD for nine months900 mg PO twice weeklyD for six monthsStandard regimen:o 10 to 15 mg/kg PO daily for nine months; not to exceed 300 mg/dayAlternate regimen:o 20 to 30 mg/kg PO twice weekly for nine months; not to exceed 900 mg/dayIsoniazid and rifapentineIsoniazid (orally once weekly for 12 doses, given by direct observation):o 15 mg/kg, rounded up to the nearest 50 or 100 mg; 900 mg maximumRifapentine (orally once weekly for three months, given by direct observation):o 10 to 14 kg: 300 mgo 14.1 to 25 kg: 450 mgo 25.1 to 32 kg: 600 mgo 32.1 to 49.9 kg: 750 mg o >50 kg: 900 mg maximumSee noteYIsoniazid (orally once weekly for 12 doses, given by direct observation):o 15 mg/kg, rounded up to the nearest 50 or 100 mg; 900 mg maximumRifapentine (orally once weekly for three months, given by direct observation):o 10 to 14 kg: 300 mgo 14.1 to 25 kg: 450 mgo 25.1 to 32 kg: 600 mgo 32.1 to 49.9 kg: 750 mgo >50 kg: 900 mg maximumRifampin600 mg PO daily for four months10 to 20 mg/kg PO daily for four months; not to exceed 600 mg/dayIsoniazid and rifampinIsoniazid 300 mg PO daily for three monthsIsoniazid 10 to 15 mg/kg PO daily for three months; not to exceed 300 mg/day Rifampin 600 mg PO daily for three monthsRifampin 10 to 20 mg/kg PO daily for three months; not to exceed 600 mg/day |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | In MI, which enzyme is raised in 4 to 6 hrs. & decreases in 3 to 4 days :
Select and explain.
A. SGOT, B. LDH, C. CPK, D. SGPT | C: CPK | Answer: C: CPK
Explanation: Answer is C (Creatinine phosphokinase) Creatinine phosphokinase is seen at 4 to 8 hours (May be seen at 2-4 hours), peaks at 24 hours and return to normal by 72 hours. Creatinine phosphokinase MB (CPKMB) Very sensitive (CPK MB isoenzyme increases the specificity) 'Absence in change in levels of CPK and CPKMB during the 1st 2 days essentially excludes the diagnosis of MI' -Chandrasoma CK elevation used to be test of choice in First 24 hours. ('Cardiac troponins are now preferred'). CKMB is still the test of choice for detecting recurrent ischaemic event. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | The most impoant factor in fracture healing is:
Select and explain.
A. Good alignment, B. Organization of blood clot, C. Accurate reduction and 100% apposition of fractured fragments, D. Immobilisation | D: Immobilisation | Answer: D: Immobilisation
Explanation: D i.e. Immobilization |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Infectious disease, Subject name: Pediatrics | Rubella causes all except
Select and explain.
A. Microcephaly, B. VSD, C. PDA, D. AS | D: AS | Answer: D: AS
Explanation: Rubella: Rubella/ german measles is caused by RNA virus of togavirus family. Rubella inhibits cell division and this is the reason for congenital malformations. Congenital Rubella syndrome refers to infants born with defects secondary to intrauterine infections sometime after bih. It consists of triad of symptoms of deafness, cardiac malformation and cataract . Other defects include glaucoma , retinopathy, microcephalus, cerebral palsy , intrauterine growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, mental and motor retardation. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 9 th edition |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Urethra & Penis, Subject name: Surgery | Optical urethroplasty is done in:(Internet)
Select and explain.
A. Congenital stricture of urethra, B. Hypospadias, C. Epispadias, D. Testicular tumour's | A: Congenital stricture of urethra | Answer: A: Congenital stricture of urethra
Explanation: (Congenital stricture of urethra) (1388-89-Baily & Love 24th) (Internet) (1362-Baily & Love 25th)Hypospadias - surgical plastic repair of hypospadias is currently accomplished by a variety of highly successful one stage operations and is routinely performed between 6 and 19 months of age (1008-CSDT 12(tm))Epispadias - Treatment consist of correction of penile curvature reconstriction of the bladder neck in incontinent patients.Congenital urethral stricture - commonly these strictures are thin diaphragms that may respond to simple dilation onto direct vision internal urethrotomy.A single treatment by optical urethrotomy or dilatation is usually effective (1388-Bailey & Love 24th)* A one stage dorsal free graft urethroplasty for bulbar urethral structure to reduce the incidence of urethrocele. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: C.V.S., Subject name: Medicine | A 78-year-old man with advanced renal disease has the ECG(lead II). What is the diagnosis?
Select and explain.
A. hyperkalemia, B. hypercalcemia, C. hypernatremia, D. pericarditis | A: hyperkalemia | Answer: A: hyperkalemia
Explanation: (a) Source: (Fuster, p. 313)No atrial activity is detected. The ventricular rate is slightly irregular. Beat number 4 is a ventricular premature contraction. The T waves are tall and markedly peaked. This type of T wave is characteristic of hyperkalemia, as is absence of visible atrial activity. The potassium level was 8.2 mmol/L. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Acute changes in brain due to wernicke's encephalopathy in chronic alcoholics is most frequently seen in:
Select and explain.
A. Mamillary bodies, B. Aqueduct of the midbrain, C. Around the third ventricle, D. Around the fouh ventricle | A: Mamillary bodies | Answer: A: Mamillary bodies
Explanation: Acute changes are most frequently seen in the 1. Mamillary bodies And also seen in 2. Around the third and fouh ventricles and 3. Aqueduct of the midbrain. Ref: Thorarinsson BL, S C I E N T I F I C P A P E R O V E R V I E W |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: The Ovarian Cycle, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Secondary oocyte consists of
Select and explain.
A. 46 XY, B. 46 XX, C. 23 Y, D. 23 X | D: 23 X | Answer: D: 23 X
Explanation: Ans. d (23 X)Secondary oocyte consist of 23 X chromosomes.The chromosomal complement of a primary oocyte is 46 XX and that of secondary oocyte is 23 X.Sequence of maturation of ovarian primordial follicle after primary follicle stage:Primordial follicle(Single layered ovarian follicle)Spermatogonium (diploid, 2N) ||Primary Spermatocyte (diploid, 2N)Primordial follicle ||Secondary Spermatocyte (haploid, N)Secondary follicle (Antral follicle) ||Spermatid (haploid, N)(Spermatogenesis begins with Spermatogonia.Full development takes 2 months.It occurs in seminiferous tubules)Graffian follicle|Corpus luteum| Corpus albicans # While majority of oogonia divide, some enter into prophase of first meiotic division and are primary oocytes. These are surrounded by flat cells, which are called primordial follicles, and are present in cortex of the ovary.# At birth, there is no more mitotic division and all the oogonia are replaced by primary oocytes, which have finished prophase of first meiotic division and remain in resting phase between prophase and metaphase.# The first stage of maturation occurs with full maturation of ovarian follicle just prior to ovulation but the final maturation occurs only after fertilization.# The primary oocyte undergoes first meiotic division giving rise to secondary oocyte and one polar body.# Secondary oocyte has haploid number of chromosomes.# Ovulation occurs soon after formation of secondary oocyte.# The secondary oocyte completes the second meiotic division only after fertilization by the sperm in the fallopian tube. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: G.I.T, Subject name: Medicine | True about mucosa associated lymphoma
Select and explain.
A. H. Pylori predisposes, B. Chemotherapy sensitive, C. Multiple lymphomas, D. Stromal Polyp | A: H. Pylori predisposes | Answer: A: H. Pylori predisposes
Explanation: Gastric lymphoma This is a rare tumour, accounting for less than 5% of all gastric malignancies. The stomach is, however, the most common site for extranodal non-Hodgkin lymphoma and 60% of all primary gastrointestinal lymphomas occur at this site. Lymphoid tissue is not found in the normal stomach but lymphoid aggregates develop in the presence of H. pylori infection. Indeed, H. pylori infection is closely associated with the development of a low-grade lymphoma (classified as extranodal marginal-zone lymphomas of MALT type). EUS plays an impoant role in staging these lesions by accurately defining the depth of invasion into the gastric wall. The clinical presentation is similar to that of gastric cancer and endoscopically the tumour appears as a polypoid or ulcerating mass. While initial treatment of low-grade lesions confined to the superficial layers of the gastric wall consists of H. pylori eradication and close observation, 25% contain t(11:18) chromosomal translocations. In these cases, additional radiotherapy or chemotherapy is usually necessary. High-grade B-cell lymphomas should be treated by a combination of rituximab, chemotherapy , surgery and radiotherapy. The choice depends on the site and extent of tumour, the presence of comorbid illnesses, and other factors, such as symptoms of bleeding and gastric outflow obstruction. The prognosis depends on the stage at diagnosis. Features predicting a ourable prognosis are stage I or II disease, small resectable tumours, tumours with low-grade histology, and age below 60 years. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg805 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Metabolism of carbohydrate, Subject name: Biochemistry | Which is not Glucogenic?
Select and explain.
A. Arginine, B. HIstidine, C. Glycine, D. Lysine | D: Lysine | Answer: D: Lysine
Explanation: The glucogenic amino acids are: Alanine Arginine Asparagine Aspaic Cysteine Glutamic Glutamine Glycine Histidine Methionine Proline Serine ValineRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | The gene for folic acid transpoer is located on which chromosome:
Select and explain.
A. 5, B. 15, C. 21, D. X | C: 21 | Answer: C: 21
Explanation: C i.e. 21Folic acid transpoer gene (SLC 19 AI solute carrier family 19) is located on long arm of chromosome 21 (21q) Q at band 22.3. Transpo of folate occurs by potocytosis which functionally couples folate receptor, folate transpoer and V- type h+ pump. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | The best treatment for class V lesion on a tooth along with extensive class II caries is:
Select and explain.
A. Restoration of class II followed by class V, B. Cast gold restoration, C. A full crown restoration, D. Restoration of class V followed by class II | C: A full crown restoration | Answer: C: A full crown restoration
Explanation: With class V lesion and extensive class II cavity in the same tooth the remaining enamel surface with the supported healthy dentin will be much less hence in such situation full crown restoration will be long lasting. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | Which has maximum nicotinic effect-
Select and explain.
A. Bethanechol, B. Carbachol, C. Pilocarpine, D. Methacholine | B: Carbachol | Answer: B: Carbachol
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Carbachol o Amongst the given options carbachol has maximum nicotinic actions. It has nicotinic as well as muscarinic action. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Indications for cesarean hysterectomy are all except:
Select and explain.
A. Placenta accreta, B. Couvelaire uterus, C. Atonic uterus with uncontrolled PPH, D. Rupture uterus | B: Couvelaire uterus | Answer: B: Couvelaire uterus
Explanation: Cesarean hysterectomy refers to an operation where cesarean section is followed by removal of the uterus.
Peripartum hysterectomy is the surgical removal of the uterus either at the time of cesarean delivery or in the immediate postpartum period (even following vaginal delivery).
Some indications for peripartum hysterectomy
Uterine atony
Abnormal placentation
– Bleeding
– Accrete syndromes
Uterine extension
Uterine rupture
Cervical laceration
Postpartum uterine infection
Leiomyoma
Invasive cervical cancer
Ovarian neoplasia
M/C cause of cesarean/peripartum hysterectomy is PPH. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Head and neck, Subject name: Anatomy | The parasympathetic secretomotor nerve supply to the nose is
Select and explain.
A. Anterior ethmoid nerve, B. Greater palatine nerve, C. Vidian nerve, D. Inferior orbital nerve | C: Vidian nerve | Answer: C: Vidian nerve
Explanation: The nerve of the pterygoid canal passes through the pterygoid canal to reach the pterygopalatine ganglion. The parasympathetic fibres relay in this ganglion. Postganglion are parasympathetic fibres arising in the ganglion ultimately supply the lacrimal gland and the mucosal glands of the nose, palate, and pharynx. The gustatory or taste fibres do not relay in the ganglion and are distributed to the palate. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | Foot process effacement is seen on EM in ?
Select and explain.
A. Minimal change disease, B. Focal segmental GN, C. IgA nephropathy, D. All | D: All | Answer: D: All
Explanation: Ans. is All 'a' i.e., Minimal change disease, 'b' i.e., Focal segmental GN, 'c' i.e., IgA nephropathyo Foot process effacement is noted in patients with nephrotic syndrome.o A variety of injurious stimuli may cause the podocyte to react with flatteninng or simplification of the foot process architecture.While most commonly noted in lipoid nephrosis (minimal change disease), foot process effacement can also be seen in focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, membranous glomerulonephropathy and in other glomerulonephritis.So, keep in mind that foot process efffacement is seen most commonly in minimal change disease, but can also occur in other glomerulonephropathies causing nephrotic syndrome (FSGS, IgA nephropathy, MPGN) o For option IgA nephropathy is a type of mesangioproliferative GN. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Most common organism associated with reactive arthritis is?
Select and explain.
A. Staphylococcus, B. Shigella, C. Chlamydia, D. Yersinia | C: Chlamydia | Answer: C: Chlamydia
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Which of the following drug is category B (adequate studies in pregnant woman have failed to demonstrate a fetal risk)?
Select and explain.
A. Ranitidine, B. Pilocarpine, C. Latanoprost, D. Dorzolamide | A: Ranitidine | Answer: A: Ranitidine
Explanation: Category B drugus are the one that have shown no risks in animal studies, but human studies do not exist or also if adverse effect have been seen in animal studies with no such effect im well controlled human trials. eg.ranitidine,paracetamol. TEXT BOOK OF OBSTETRICS,Sheila Balakrishnan,2nd edition,page no.564 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | Which of the following is true regarding Hybridoma Technique
Select and explain.
A. It is a method for production of monoclonal antibodies, B. B Cells are fused with myeloma cells using polyethylene glycol, C. HAT medium is used to differentiate fused v/s unfused cells, D. All of the above | D: All of the above | Answer: D: All of the above
Explanation: All the following statements are corret. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | Hu is defined under section: NEET 14
Select and explain.
A. 319 IPC, B. 320 IPC, C. 321 IPC, D. 323 IPC | A: 319 IPC | Answer: A: 319 IPC
Explanation: Ans. 319 IPC |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | Pale infarcts are seen at all of the following sites except-
Select and explain.
A. Hea, B. Spleen, C. Kidney, D. Lung | D: Lung | Answer: D: Lung
Explanation: Ans is 'd' i.e., Lung INFARCTION o An infarct is an area of ischemic necrosis by occlusion of either the aerial supply or venous drainage in a paicular tissue. Pathogenesis o Mostly it is caused by interrupted blood supply. o "Nearly 99% of all infarcts results from thrombotic or embolic events and almost all result. from aerial occlusion". o Other causes of interrupted aerial supply are local vasospasm, extrinsic compression of a vessel by tumor, twisting of vessel e.g., in testicular torsion, expansion of atheroma due to hemorrhage within the plaque. o Venous obstruction usually cause congesion, edema, infarction does not occur because bypass channels rapidly open after the thrombus, providing some outflow from the area, which inturn improves aerial inflow. Infarct cause by venous thrombosis is more likely in organs with a single venous outflow channel, such as in testis and ovary. Types of infarct o Infarcts are classified on the basis of their color. o Infarcts are classified into either Red (Haemorrhagic) or White or Pale (anaemic) infarcts, reflecting the amount of haemorrhage. Red infarcts (Haemorrhagic) : occur with : Venous occlusions (eg ovarian torsion); In loose tissues (such as lungs); In tissues with dual circulation (e.g. Lung & S. intestine) In tissues that were previously congested because of sluggish venous out flow. When flow is reestablilshed to a site of previous aerial occulusion and necrosis. White or Pale infarcts : occur with : Aerial occlusions, or In solid organs e.g. Hea, spleen, Liver, kidney and brain where the solidity of tissue limits the amount of haemorrhage that can seep into the area of ischaemic necrosis. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | All are split - thickness skin graft except
Select and explain.
A. Thiersch graft, B. Padgett graft, C. Wolfe graft, D. Blair-Brown graft | C: Wolfe graft | Answer: C: Wolfe graft
Explanation: Wolfe graft is full thickness skin graft. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Enteropathy type T cell lymphoma is associated with -
Select and explain.
A. M.A.L. Toma, B. Celiac Sprue, C. Menetrier disease, D. Crohn's disease | B: Celiac Sprue | Answer: B: Celiac Sprue
Explanation: Answer- B. Celiac SprueEnteropathy-type- T cell lymphoma is a rare complication of long-standing celiac disease. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Nervous System, Subject name: Physiology | Fine touch is transmitted via:
Select and explain.
A. The dorsal lemniscal system, B. The anterior spinothalamic tract, C. The lateral spinothalamic tract, D. The cerebellopontine tracts | A: The dorsal lemniscal system | Answer: A: The dorsal lemniscal system
Explanation: Ans. A. The dorsal lemniscal systema. Lateral spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature;b. Anterior spinothalamic tract carries crude touch;c. All other sensations are carried by dorsal lemniscal. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Ophthalmology | A young 25 year old man following A presented with proptosis (pulsatile in nature) ,chemosis and pain in right eye after 4 days. On Examination there was bruit on forehead and right eye. The probable diagnosis is
Select and explain.
A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis, B. Carotico cavernous Fistula, C. Fracture sphenoid, D. Internal Carotid Aery Aneurysm | B: Carotico cavernous Fistula | Answer: B: Carotico cavernous Fistula
Explanation: B i.e. Carotico cavernos Fistula |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Hearing Loss, Subject name: ENT | BERA can be most accurate from which gestation?
Select and explain.
A. 30 weeks, B. 32 weeks, C. 34 weeks, D. 28 weeks | C: 34 weeks | Answer: C: 34 weeks
Explanation: Ref: Clohertys Manual of Neonatal Care, 6th edition. Page 646 and ENT DhingraExplanation:"ABR is reliable after 34 weeks postnatal age. "Ref: ClohertyBRAINSTEM EVOKED RESPONSE AUDIOMETRY (BERA)Other nameso Auditory brainstem responses (ABR)o Brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER)o Brainstem auditory evoked potential (BAEP).Measures the electroencephalographic waves generated hy the auditory system in response to clicks through three electrodes placed on the infant's scalp.The characteristic waveform recorded from the electrodes becomes better defined with increasing postnatal age.ABR is reliable after 34 weeks postnatal age.At present, because of the increased risk of injury to the auditory pathway beyond the cochlea (auditory nerve) including auditory dyssynchrony, ABR is the preferred screening method to evaluate hearing loss in the NICE graduate.Non-invasive technique to find integrity of central auditory pathways through the 8th cranial nerve, pons and midhrain.Electrical potentials are generated in response to several click stimuli or tone-bursts and picked up from the vertex by surface electrodes.It measures hearing sensitivity in the range of 1000 - 4000 Hz.In normal person. 7 waves are produced in the first 10 milliseconds.The 1st, 3rd and 5th waves are most stable and are used in measurements.Parameters studied in waveforms:o Latencyo Inter-wave latencyo Amplitude.The exact anatomic site of neural generators are:o Wave 1 - Distal part of CN 8.o Wave 2 - Proximal part of CN 8 near the brainstem.o Wave 3 - Cochlear nucleuso Wave 4 - Superior olivary complexo Wave 5 - Lateral lemniscuso Wave 6 & 7 - Inferior colliculus.UsesScreening for hearing in infants.To determine the threshold of hearing in:o Infants.o Children.o Uncooperative adultso Malingerers.To diagnose retroeochlear pathology (e.g.: Acoustic neuroma).To diagnose brainstem pathology (e.g.: Multiple sclerosis or Pontine tumors)To monitor CN 8 intraoperatively in surgery of acoustic neuromas to preserve the function of cochlear nerve. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Pharynx, Subject name: ENT | Parapharygeal space is also known as
Select and explain.
A. Retropharyngeal space, B. Pyriform sinus, C. Lateral pharyngeal space, D. Pterygomaxillary space | C: Lateral pharyngeal space | Answer: C: Lateral pharyngeal space
Explanation: Parapharyngeal space is situated on the side of the pharynx. It is pyramidal in shape with the base at the base of the skull and apex at the hyoid bone. It contains carotid vessels, jugular vein, last 4 cranial nerves and cervical sympathetic chain. Ref: Diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 301 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | A patient undergoing chest x-ray following an automobile accident is found to have an enlarged mediastinum with bilateral hilar and right paratracheal adenopathy. The patient has been asymptomatic, but careful examination demonstrates an enlarged cervical lymph node. This node is biopsied and demonstrates involvement by small, non-caseating granulomas. Occasional giant cells with stellate inclusions are seen within the granulomas. These are most likely which of the following?
Select and explain.
A. Anitschkow cells, B. Aschoff bodies, C. Asteroid bodies, D. Paget's cells | C: Asteroid bodies | Answer: C: Asteroid bodies
Explanation: The cells described are asteroid bodies, and are classically associated with sarcoidosis, although they are not completely specific for this disease. Anitschkow cells are a form of activated histiocyte with an unusual wavy chromatin. They are found within inflammatory lesions called Aschoff bodies in the heas of patients with acute rheumatic hea disease. Paget's cells are individual adenocarcinoma cells found within the squamous epithelium of the skin. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Which of the following is not true about Mumps: March 2007
Select and explain.
A. Caused by paramyxovirus, B. Incubation period is less than 14 days, C. Orchitis is a common complication in males, D. Aseptic meningitis is a commoner complication in children | B: Incubation period is less than 14 days | Answer: B: Incubation period is less than 14 days
Explanation: Ans. B: Incubation period is less than 14 Incubation period of mumps is 14-18 days The more common symptoms of mumps are: Parotid inflammation/ parotitis in 60-70% of infections. Fever Headache Orchitis, referring to painful inflammation of the testicle.Males past pubey who develop mumps have a 30 percent risk of orchitis. There is no specific treatment for mumps. Mumps viral infections in adult males carries a 25% risk that the testes may become infected which in rare cases leads to sterility. After the illness, life-long immunity to mumps generally occurs. Complications Infection of other organ systems Sterility in men (this is quite rare, and mostly occurs in older men) Mild forms of meningitis (rare, 40% of cases occur without parotid swelling) Encephalitis (very rare, rarely fatal) Profound (91 dB or more) but rare sensorineural hearing loss, uni- or bilateral Pancreatitis manifesting as pain abdomen and vomiting Oophoritis (inflammation of ovaries) but feility is rarely affected. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: All India exam, Subject name: Medicine | All are true regarding Scheuermann's osteochondritis except?
Select and explain.
A. Dorsal kyphosis, B. Autosomal recessive inheritance, C. Predominantly affects adolescent boys, D. Irregular ossification of veebral endplates | B: Autosomal recessive inheritance | Answer: B: Autosomal recessive inheritance
Explanation: Scheuermann's osteochondritis has autosomal dominant inheritance. It commonly affects adolescent boys. It is characterised by irregular ossification of veebral endplates and dorsal kyphosis. Most patients are asymptomatic. It can present with backache which is aggravated by exercise. Management is by protective postural exercises with avoidance of excessive activity. Ref: Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine, 22nd edition, p1130 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Which among the following electrolyte disturbance following diarrhoea can cause convulsions?
Select and explain.
A. Hypokalemia, B. Hyponatremia, C. Hyperkalemia, D. Hypernatremia | B: Hyponatremia | Answer: B: Hyponatremia
Explanation: Hyponatremia can result from diarrhea, vomiting, burns, diuretic administration, and administration of sodium-poor parenteral solutions. Seizures and coma usually are associated with severe hyponatremia and may be life-threatening. Acute hypernatremia usually is caused by severe water depletion with diarrhea especially in children. Ref: Harrison's 17th edition, chapter 46 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: G.I.T, Subject name: Anatomy | All are true about liver adenoma except
Select and explain.
A. Normal liver architecture, B. Increased fat, C. Increased glycogen, D. Cells arranged in cords | A: Normal liver architecture | Answer: A: Normal liver architecture
Explanation: Clinical features Symptomatic ( upper abdominal pain) in 50-75%, related to hemorrhage or local compressive symptoms Two major risks - Rupture and malignant transformation Pathology Composed of cords of benign hepatocytes containing increased glycogen and fat, without bile ductules, fibrous septa, poal tracts or central vein Normal architecture of the liver is not seen in these lesions Central large plates of hepatocytes separated by dilated sinusoids which are perfused solely by peripheral aerial feeding vessels(lack poal venous supply), under aerial pressure Hemorrhage and necrosis are commonly seen |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Vascular Disorders, Subject name: Ophthalmology | First retinal abnormality in diabetic retinopathy: (PGI Dec 2007)
Select and explain.
A. Microaneurysm, B. Hard exudates, C. Soft exudates, D. Cotton Wool spots | A: Microaneurysm | Answer: A: Microaneurysm
Explanation: Ans. A (Microaneurysm) [Ref Khurana 4th/260-62; Parson 20th/294-98}"The earliest detectable lesion is microaneurysms in the macular area" -Khurana 4th/260Diabetic Retinopathy: Classification- 4 types Khurana 4th/260-62Non-proliferative Diabetic RetinopathyMicro aneurysmQ in macular area (the earliest detectable lesionQ)Retinal haemorrhage both deep (dot & blot haemorrhage) & superficial haemorrhages (flame shaped)Hard exudateQRetinal oedemaCotton-wool spotQProliferative Diabetic RetinopathyPDR develops in >50% of cases after about 25 years of the onset of diseaseThe hallmark Q of PDR is the occurence of neovasculari- ation'i over the changes of very severe NPDRVitreous detachment & vitreous haemorrhage may occurDiabetic MaculopathyMacular edemaQ is termed as clinically significant macular edemaChanges in macula affect visionD.Maculopathy-4 subtypeFocal exudative maculopathyDiffuse exudative maculopathyIschaemic maculopathyMixed maculopathyAdvanced Diabetic Eye DiseasePersistent vitreous haemorrhageTractiona! retinal detach m entQNeovascularglaucoma Q |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: General Pharmacology, Subject name: Pharmacology | Phase I trial is done to test:
Select and explain.
A. Safety, B. Efficacy, C. Dose, D. Pharmacokinetics | D: Pharmacokinetics | Answer: D: Pharmacokinetics
Explanation: Ans. D. PharmacokineticsPhase I trial is also called First in human trial. In this phase, 10-100 healthy people are enrolled to calculate pharmacokinetic data. Phase 0 trials are also done sometimes prior to phase I studies to calculate early pharmacokinetic data. Phase II and III trials usually enrol patients. Phase II trials enrol 50-100 and usually determine drug efficacy and dose ranging. Phase III trials confirm the efficacy in larger population (100-1000). Phase IV trials are also known as postmarketing studies which determine safety (adverse drug reactions, adverse events, and drug-drug interactions). Even safety of long-term drug treatment can be determined in Phase IV trials which can be missed in clinical trials due to limited duration of clinical trials. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Virology, Subject name: Microbiology | New infectious agents are -
Select and explain.
A. Nipah virus, B. Pneumocystis jieruveci, C. Corona virus, D. SARS | A: Nipah virus | Answer: A: Nipah virus
Explanation: A new genus Henipavirus has been recently identified with the Nipah and Henda viruses causing zoonotic outbreaks. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:515 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | All of the following are tumor markers, except
Select and explain.
A. CEA, B. HCG, C. Alpha-fetoprotein, D. Beta-2 macroglobulin | D: Beta-2 macroglobulin | Answer: D: Beta-2 macroglobulin
Explanation: Beta-2 microglobulin and not beta macroglobulin may be used as a tumor marker (as in multiple myeloma). |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pediatrics | Felty syndrome is characterised by A/E
Select and explain.
A. Rheumatoid ahritis, B. Splenomegaly, C. Neutropeni, D. Thrombocytopenia | D: Thrombocytopenia | Answer: D: Thrombocytopenia
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thrombocytopenia Felty's syndrome is characterized by the combination of rheumatoid ahritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia. The condition is more common in those aged 50-70 years, and is more prevalent in females than males |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | Inversion of foot is at
Select and explain.
A. Talocalcaneonavicular joint, B. Calcaneocuboid joint, C. Talocalcaneal joint, D. Inferior tibiofibular joint | C: Talocalcaneal joint | Answer: C: Talocalcaneal joint
Explanation: C. i.e. Talocalcaneal joint |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Physiology | The motility of cell is due to protein-
Select and explain.
A. Motilin, B. Tubulin, C. Laminin, D. Tactilin | B: Tubulin | Answer: B: Tubulin
Explanation: Functions of Microtubules include determination of cell shape and various cell movements. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Transplantation, Subject name: Surgery | After the first postoperative year of cardiac transplantation, the most common cause of death is
Select and explain.
A. Infection, B. Arrhythmia, C. Accelerated graft arteriosclerosis, D. Acute rejection episode | C: Accelerated graft arteriosclerosis | Answer: C: Accelerated graft arteriosclerosis
Explanation: Chronic graft rejection is manifested in cardiac allografts as chronic vascular rejection of main and intramuscular coronary arteries. Myointimal proliferation and medial scarring result in diffuse and eccentric arterial narrowing referred to as accelerated graft atherosclerosis. Infection remains the primary cause of death within the first year of cardiac transplant, but accelerated graft arteriosclerosis is the most common cause of mortality thereafter. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty, coronary artery bypass grafting, and re-transplantation are the current options for combating this problem. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Shape memory is seen in:
Select and explain.
A. Stainless steel wire, B. NITINOL wire, C. TMA wire, D. Aluminium | B: NITINOL wire | Answer: B: NITINOL wire
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Thyroid carcinoma associated with hypocalcemia is
Select and explain.
A. Follicular carcinoma, B. Medullary carcinoma, C. Anaplastic carcinoma, D. Papillary carcinoma | B: Medullary carcinoma | Answer: B: Medullary carcinoma
Explanation: Answer is B (Medullary Carcinoma) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid secretes calcitonin and this causes reduction in calcium levels. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Diagnosis in obstetrics, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Fetal abdominal circumference is measured at the level of :
Select and explain.
A. Stomach and umbilical vein, perpendicular to spine, B. Kidneys, C. Stomach parallel to spine, D. Liver and spleen | A: Stomach and umbilical vein, perpendicular to spine | Answer: A: Stomach and umbilical vein, perpendicular to spine
Explanation: Abdominal Circumference (AC) is measured in the transverse section of the fetal abdomen at the level of the fetal stomach and the umbilical poion of the poal vein.This is usually affected in IUGR and is less useful in dating as it is the parameter most affected by fetal growth. Refer page no 479 of Text book of obstetrics,sheila balakrishnan 2 nd edition. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Skin | A 16 year old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple erythamatous annular lesions with a collarette of scales at periph-ery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is:
Select and explain.
A. Pityriasis versicolor, B. Pityriasis alba, C. Pityriasis rosacea, D. Pityriasis rubra pilaris | C: Pityriasis rosacea | Answer: C: Pityriasis rosacea
Explanation: C i.e. Pityriasis rosea Pityriasis rosea is a self limiting disorderQ of unknown etiology, with a suspected association with Herpes virus 7 and 6Q. It presents with development of usually asymptomatic (i.e. no prodromal or constitutional system), sharply (well) demarcated, larger (2-6 cm), annular (oval-round), erythematousQ (red to brown) lesion k/a primary/herald/mother patch mostly located on trunk in children and young adults (10-35 yrs)( 2. Similar but smaller secondary eruptions appear in crops at interval of usually 2 weeks distributed along lines of cleavage in christmas (fir) tree appearanceQ. Lesions demonstrate fine (cigarette paper) collarette of scaleQ just inside the peripheray of plaque. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Histo Pathology, Subject name: Pathology | Which of the following is a stain for fat cells?
Select and explain.
A. PAS, B. Prussian blue, C. Sudan IV, D. Alcian blue | C: Sudan IV | Answer: C: Sudan IV
Explanation: ANSWER: (C) Sudan IVREF: See APPENDIX-24 for "HISTOLOGY/PATHOLOGY/ MICROBIOLOGY STAINS" APPENDIX - 24Histology/Pathology/Microbiology StainsT issue/substanoeStainCommentAmyloidGross stainingLugol's iodine Light microscopyH & E, Congo redPolarised lightCongo redMetachromatic stainMethyl violet, crystal violetFluorescent stainThioflavin TNon specific stainPAS, Toludine blue. Aldan blueCaldum/calcificationVon kossa Alizarin Red SFor small quantitiesCalcein Tetracycline labellingBest for bone mineralizationConnective tissueVan Gieson stain (Picric Add + Acid Fuchsin)Simplest method of differential staining of Collagen and other Connective TissueTrichome stain (Gomori trichrome stain, Lillie's trichome & Masson trichome)Red = keratin/muscleBlue/green = bone /'collagenPink = cytoplasmCarcohydrate (Glycogen, cellulose etc)Periodic acid-Schiff stainNon specific for glycogenDiastaseSpecific for glycogenBest's carmine LipidSudan stains{Sudan III, IV, Sudan Back-B, Oil Red 0)Oil Red O largely replaced Sudan III and Sudan IVOil Red O is also used in a technique for staining latent fingerprintsOsmium tetra oxideAs a lipid stain, it is useful in scanning electron microscopy (SEM)LipofuscinSudan Black B MucinMuscarmineMost specific but less usefulPASMost sensitive, For neutral mucopolysaccharidesAlcian blue Bismark brownCan be used with live cellsColloidal iron Micro organismsFungiH & EBluePASRedGomori methamine silverMost sensitiveMycobacteriumZ N stain/methodCarbol fuchsinAuramine Rhodamine stainMost sensitive, mixture of Auramine O and Rhodamine B, used in fluorescence microscopySpirochetesWarthin starry silver stain H PyloriWarthin starry silver stainGiemsa stainH&E Pneumocystis/ Cryptococcus/ cocci diomycetesGomori methamine silver |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Virology, Subject name: Microbiology | In a person with HIV-1 infection, which of the following is the most predictive of the patient's prognosis
Select and explain.
A. CD4+ cell count, B. CD4:CD8 cell ratio, C. Level of HIV-1 RNA in plasma, D. Degree of lymphadenopathy | C: Level of HIV-1 RNA in plasma | Answer: C: Level of HIV-1 RNA in plasma
Explanation: Amplification assays (-PCR, DNA PCR, and b DNA tests) are routinely used to detect viral RNA in clinical specimens. The tests can be quantitative when reference standards are used, and appropriate positive and negative controls must be included in each test. Because these molecular based tests are very sensitive, they form the basis for plasma viral load determinations. It is generally agreed that the amount of HIV in the blood (viral load) is of significant prognostic value. There are continual rounds of viral replication and cell killing in each patient, and the steady-state level of virus in the blood varies with individuals. A single measurement of plasma viral load approximately 6 months after infection can predict the risk of development of AIDS in men several years later. In women, viral load appears to be less predictive. The plasma viral load appears to be the best predictor of long-term clinical outcome, whereas CD4 lymphocyte counts are the best predictor of sho-term risk of developing an oppounistic disease. Plasma viral load measurements are a critical element in assessing the effectiveness of antiretroviral drug therapy. Ref:- Baveja textbook of Microbiology |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Diagnosis in obstetrics, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All of the following are biochemical markers included for triple test except
Select and explain.
A. Alfa-fetoprotein, B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), C. Human placental lactogen (HPL, D. Unconjugated oestriol | C: Human placental lactogen (HPL | Answer: C: Human placental lactogen (HPL
Explanation: Triple test It is a combined biochemical test which includes MSAFP,hCG,UE3(unconjugated oestriol).Maternal age in relation to confirmed gestational age is also taken into account.It is used for the detection of Down&;s syndrome.In an affected pregnancy,level of MSAFP and UE3 tend to be low while that of hCG is high.It is performed in 15-18 weeks. D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF OBSTETRICS,pg no:106,7th edition |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: General anatomy, Subject name: Anatomy | Maximum collagen in wound healing is seen at which stage of healing
Select and explain.
A. End of first week, B. End of second week, C. End of third week, D. End of 2months | C: End of third week | Answer: C: End of third week
Explanation: ref Robbins 9/ep106-108 When the levels of collagen production and degradation equalize, the maturation phase of tissue repair is said to have begun. During maturation, type III collagen, which is prevalent during proliferation, is replaced by type I collagen.Originally disorganized collagen fibers are rearranged, cross-linked, and aligned along tension lines. The onset of the maturation phase may vary extensively, depending on the size of the wound and whether it was initially closed or left open, ranging from approximately 3 days to 3 weeks. The maturation phase can last for a year or longer, similarly depending on wound type. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Elective endodontic treatment is contraindicated in
Select and explain.
A. Angina patients, B. Recent MI, C. Diabetes, D. Hypertension | B: Recent MI | Answer: B: Recent MI
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Retina, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Which of the following is not a High Risk Characteristic in proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Select and explain.
A. NVD >= 1/3 - 1/2 disc area, B. NVD + Vitreous or Preretinal haemorrhage, C. NVE >= 1/2 disc area and Preretinal or Vitreous haemorrhage, D. NVD + Clinically signifacnt macular edema | D: NVD + Clinically signifacnt macular edema | Answer: D: NVD + Clinically signifacnt macular edema
Explanation: Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy Early PDR- Presence of new vessels High risk PDR NVD >= 1/3 - 1/2 disc area or NVD and Vitreous or Preretinal haemorrhage or NVE >= 1/2 disc area and Preretinal or Vitreous haemorrhage |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Glaucoma, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Normal aqueous production rate -
Select and explain.
A. 2 ml/min, B. 5 ml/min, C. 2ml/min, D. 5 ml/min | C: 2ml/min | Answer: C: 2ml/min
Explanation: Aqueous humour is derived from plasma within the capillary network of ciliary processes.The normal aqueous production rate is 2.3ml/min. Ref:ophthalmology -AK khurana -6th edition chapt:10 page no:221 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Ex-Press giaueoma implant is oiaily up of:
Select and explain.
A. Silicone, B. Titanium, C. Gold, D. Stainless steel | D: Stainless steel | Answer: D: Stainless steel
Explanation: Ans. d. Stainless steel |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anaesthesia | A 45 year - male presents with abrupt onset pain, weakness, loss of contour of shoulder and muscle wasting on 5deg day of tetanus toxoid immunization. Likely cause is:
Select and explain.
A. Hysterical, B. Radial nerve entrapment, C. Brachial plexus neuritis, D. Thoracic outlet syndrome | C: Brachial plexus neuritis | Answer: C: Brachial plexus neuritis
Explanation: Brachial plexus neuritis Ref: Basic neurology [By John Gilroy 3/e p594; "Brachial plexus neuritis is characterized by a sudden paralysis of muscles supplied through the brachial plexus and is often associated with painful dysesthesia of the arm. The condition occurs in known viral infections (herpes zoster, Epstein-Barr virus), following injections of tetanus toxoid, in putative viral infections; and as an autobnmune disorder following a surgical procedure."- Basic neurology By John Gilroy 3/e p594 Brachial plexus neuritis usually is characterized by the acute onset of excruciating unilateral shoulder pain, followed by flaccid paralysis of shoulder and parascapular muscles several days later. The syndrome can vary greatly in presentation and nerve involvement. Brachial neuritis (BN) exists in an inherited and an idiopathic form. In the idiopathic version, the pathophysiology is unknown, but the condition is generally thought to be an immune system - mediated inflammatory reaction against nerve fibers of the brachial plexus. The onset of pain in brachial neuritis (BN) is often abrupt and may follow recent illness, surgery, immunization, or even trauma (see Causes, below). Up to two thirds of cases begin during the nighttime. Sensory abnormalities are of usually of less intensity than the pain and muscle weakness. Causes: The exact cause of brachial neuritis is unknown, but the condition has been linked to many antecedent events or illnesses, as follows: Viral infection (paicularly of the upper respiratory tract) Bacterial infection (eg, pneumonia, diphtheria, typhoid) Parasitic infestation S urgery 2 Trauma (not related to shoulder) Vaccinations (eg, influenza, tetanus, diphtheria, tetanus toxoids, peussis [DPT J. smallpox, swine flu) Childbih Miscellaneous medical investigative procedures (eg, lumbar puncture, administration of radiologic dye) Systemic illness (eg, polyaeritis nodosa, lymphoma, systemic lupus erythematosus, temporal aeritis, EhlersDanlos syndrome) A rarer, hereditary form of BN has been localized to the SEPT9 gene on chromosome arm 17q and should be considered a distinct disorder. This entity presents in a younger age group, and is characterized by recurrent, often bilateral attacks. Dysmorphic facial features (eg, hypotelorism, long nasal bridge, facial asymmetry) can also be present. Diagnosis: Other causes of severe pain, such as an acute herniated cervical disc, should be excluded. In brachial plexus neuritis, electromyography and nerve conduction studies reveal abnormalities in more than one nerve; in contrast, cervical radiculopathy may show osteophytes and interspace narrowing on cervical spine x-rays and neuroforaminal disc impingement of MRI. Treatment: of brachial plexus neuritis is suppoive, with analgesics for pain, physical therapy to maintain shoulder strength/mobility, and reassurance that the condition generally will improve, albeit slowly. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | MOST common acute complication of hemodialysis is:
Select and explain.
A. Muscle cramps, B. Anaphylaxis, C. Hypotension, D. Arrythmias | C: Hypotension | Answer: C: Hypotension
Explanation: Hypotension is the most common acute complication of hemodialysis. It is paicularly common among patients with diabetes mellitus. The factors that appear to increase the risk of hypotension, are excessive ultrafiltration with inadequate compensatory vascular filling, impaired vasoactive or autonomic responses, osmolar shifts, overzealous use of antihypeensive agents, and reduced cardiac reserve. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 2324. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | Which of the following decreases effectiveness of insulin -
Select and explain.
A. Thiazide, B. Atropine, C. b-blockers, D. Acute alcohol ingestion | A: Thiazide | Answer: A: Thiazide
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thiazide o Thiazide, furosamide, coicosteroids, oral contraceptives, salbutamol, nifedipine tend to raise blood sugar and reduce effectiveness of insulin. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Vitreous and retina, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Causes of exudative retinal detachment are all except -
Select and explain.
A. Toxemia of pregnancy, B. Scleritis, C. High myopia, D. Central serous retinopathy | C: High myopia | Answer: C: High myopia
Explanation: Occurs due to the retina being pushed away by a neoplasm or accumulation of fluid beneath the retina following inflammatory or vascular lesions. Etiology: Systemic diseases- toxaemia of pregnancy, retinal HTN, blood dyscrasias. Ocular diseases- scleritis, central serous retinopathy, orbital cellulitis, retinoblastoma, malignant melanoma of choroid. Ref: Khurana 5th edition , page no 298 |