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This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Orthopedics, Subject name: Surgery | Allen's test is used to diagnose:
Select and explain.
A. Thoracic outlet syndrome, B. Palmar arch insufficiency, C. Superior vena cava syndrome, D. Coarctation of aorta | B: Palmar arch insufficiency | Answer: B: Palmar arch insufficiency
Explanation: Ref: Bailey and One's Short Practice of Surgery 25th EditionExplanation:Allen's testIt is a test for the patency of the radial artery after insertion of an indwelling monitoring catheter. The patient's hand is formed into a fist *nd the ulnar artery is compressedcompression continues while the fist is opened.If blood perfusion through the radial artery is adequate, the hand should Hush and resume its normal pinkish coloration.Adsonks testIt is the loss of the radial pulse in the arm by- rotating head to the ipsi lateral side with extended neck following deep inspiration.It is seen in thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Structure and function of protein, Subject name: Biochemistry | Which is denatured collagen in humans?
Select and explain.
A. Gelatin, B. Homocollagen, C. Tropocollagen, D. None | A: Gelatin | Answer: A: Gelatin
Explanation: heat denatured collagen is gelatin . REFERENCE; DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK SEVENTH EDITION ; Page no;39 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | Isoform of LDH in skeletal muscles ?
Select and explain.
A. LDH-1, B. LDH-2, C. LDH-3, D. LDH-4 | D: LDH-4 | Answer: D: LDH-4
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., LDH-4 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Brainstem lesions and blood supply of CNS, Subject name: Anatomy | False statement about lateral medullary syndrome?
Select and explain.
A. 5,7,nerve lesions, B. I/L pain ,temperature loss of body, C. I/L pain temperature loss of face, D. 10 nerve palsy | B: I/L pain ,temperature loss of body | Answer: B: I/L pain ,temperature loss of body
Explanation: Lateral medullary syndrome also known as Wallenberg syndrome. Lateral medullary ischemia d/o ipsilateral veebral aery (in most cases) or PICA(in few cases) I/L Horner's + I/L sensory alternation of pain and temp on face (V nerve nucleus involvement) I/L Cerebellar ataxia (involvement of inferior cerebellar peduncle) C/L Alternation of pain and temp on body (Spinothalamic tract involvement) I/L Loss of taste (involvement of Nucleus tractus solitarious) Difficulty in speech and swallowing (involvement of Nucleus ambiguus) |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | Rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis is:
Select and explain.
A. HMG CoA synthetase, B. HMG CoA reductase, C. Thiokinase, D. Mevalonate kinase | B: HMG CoA reductase | Answer: B: HMG CoA reductase
Explanation: HMG CoA reductase |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Anatomy & Physiology (Testis & Scrotum), Subject name: Surgery | Reinke's crystals are seen in?
Select and explain.
A. Leydig cells, B. Sertoli cells, C. Curschmann spirals, D. Creola bodies | A: Leydig cells | Answer: A: Leydig cells
Explanation: Ans. (a) Leydig cellsRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. /1341Rectangular, crystal-like inclusions, composed of protein, with pointed or rounded ends in the interstitial cells of the testis (Leydig cells) and hilus cells in the ovary. Inside the Leydig cells of human males can be found Reinkes crystals. The purpose of these crystals is uncertain, some believe that they are a by-product of a degenerative process related to aging. They appear to have no contribution to androgen or testosterone production, and they can be used to identify Leydig cells easily when viewing testicular tissue under a microscope |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | Dystrophic calcification is seen in ?
Select and explain.
A. Milk alkali syndrome, B. Atheromatous plaque, C. Hyperparathyroidism, D. Vitamin A intoxication | B: Atheromatous plaque | Answer: B: Atheromatous plaque
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Atheromatous plaqueDystrophic calcification o When pathological calcification takes place in dead, dying or degenerated tissue, it is called dystrophic calcification. o Calcium metabolism is not altered and serum calcium level is normal.Dystrophic calcification in dead tissues1.In caseous necrosis of tuberculosis(most common which may be in lymph nodes)2.Chronic abscess in liquifactive necrosis3.Fungal granuloma4.Infarct5.Thrombi6.Haematomas7.Dead parasites-Cystecercosis/Toxoplasma Hydatid/Schistosoma8.In fat necrosis of breast & other tissuesDystrophic calcification in degenerated tissuesAtheromatous plagueMonkeberg's sclerosisPsommama bodiesDens old scarsSenile degenrated changes such as in costal cailage, tracheal, bronchial rings, Pineal gland in brain.Hea valves damaged by rheumatic fever.How does calcification occurs in these site with normal serum calcium ?o Calcification of dead and dying cells and tissues is a common finding in human pathologic conditions. o Denatured proteins in dead or irreversible damaged tissues preferentially bind phosphate ions. o Phosphate ions react with calcium ions to form a precipitate or calcium phosphate.o Thus, necrotic tissue serves as a calcium sink. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Myocardial Infarction, Subject name: Pathology | A 55-year-old woman present due to recent onset of chest pain and dyspnea. Six weeks prior, patient suffered MI. On physical examination, friction rub over 5th intercostal space in midclavicular line along with elevated JVP. What is the most likely cause of this presentation?
Select and explain.
A. Cardiac rupture syndrome, B. Thromboembolism, C. Dressler syndrome, D. Ventricular aneurysm | C: Dressler syndrome | Answer: C: Dressler syndrome
Explanation: Dressler syndrome is an autoimmune phenomenon that result in fibrinous pericarditis. Fibrinous pericarditis is both an early and late complication of MI. The delayed pericarditis typically develops 2-10 weeks post MI and present clinically as chest pain and pericardial friction rub. It is generally treated with aspirin or coicosteroid. Cardiac arrythmia is a common cause of post MI death, typically occurring the first few days following the event. It is not associated with friction rub. Ventricular rupture is a serious cause of post MI death typically occurs 3-7 days after initial event. It can present with persistent chest pain, syncope and distended jugular veins. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Anaesthetic equipments, Subject name: Anaesthesia | What is the pressure at which oxygen is stored ?
Select and explain.
A. 75 psi, B. 1600 psi, C. 760 psi, D. 2200 psi | D: 2200 psi | Answer: D: 2200 psi
Explanation: Oxygen is stored at a pressure of 1900psi |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | Which of the following is false about varicocele
Select and explain.
A. Most common in left testis, B. Causes infertility, C. Treated by palomo procedure, D. Present in old age patients | D: Present in old age patients | Answer: D: Present in old age patients
Explanation: It is common in young males.
Bag of worms consistency e is present on examination
It has high recurrence rate. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Testicular Feminization syndrome is characterised by all except
Select and explain.
A. Absent uterus, B. Primary amenorrhea, C. Normal breast, D. Barr body present | D: Barr body present | Answer: D: Barr body present
Explanation: Karyotype in testicular feminization syndrome is 46 XY. Barr body is therfore absent. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | The Periapical lesion that would most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is
Select and explain.
A. Periapical abscess, B. Periapical cyst, C. Periapical granuloma, D. Condensing osteitis | A: Periapical abscess | Answer: A: Periapical abscess
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Oral cavity & Oesophagus, Subject name: ENT | Facial nerve exits the skull through
Select and explain.
A. Stylomastoid foramen, B. Internal acoustic meatus, C. Foramen Lacerum, D. Foramen Rotundum | A: Stylomastoid foramen | Answer: A: Stylomastoid foramen
Explanation: Facial nerve enters the temporal bone through - Internal acoustic meatus Facial nerve exits the skull through - Stylomastoid foramen. Ref: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat, 7th edition, pg no. 99 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pediatrics | A child presenting with clinical features of an endocrine abnormality showed epiphyseal dysgenesis in imaging studies. Epiphyseal dysgenesis is a pathognomonic feature of:
Select and explain.
A. Hypoparathyroidism, B. Hyperparathyroidism, C. Hypothyroidism, D. Hypehyroidism | C: Hypothyroidism | Answer: C: Hypothyroidism
Explanation: Epiphyseal dysgenesis is radiological finding of hypothyroidism which is characterized by centers of ossification, especially of the hip, may show multiple small centers or a single stippled, porous, or fragmented center. Other radiological findings of hypothyroidism: Delayed bone age Cardiomegaly Thyrotrophic hyperplasia characterized by an enlarged sella or pituitary gland Ref: Zeitler P.S., Travers S.H., Nadeau K., Barker J.M., Kelsey M.M., Kappy M.S. (2012). Chapter 34. Endocrine Disorders. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | All of the following statement regarding stones in the submandibular gland are true except: March 2008
Select and explain.
A. 80% of stones occur in the submandibular gland, B. Majority of submandibular stones are radio-lucent, C. Stones are the most common cause of obstruction within the submandibular gland, D. Patient presents with acute swelling in the region of the submandibular gland | B: Majority of submandibular stones are radio-lucent | Answer: B: Majority of submandibular stones are radio-lucent
Explanation: Ans. B: Majority of submandibular stones are radio-lucent |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Pigmentation, Subject name: Pathology | A 90-year-old woman with mild diabetes and Alzheimer's disease die in her sleep. At autopsy, hepatocytes are noted to contain golden cytoplasmic granules that do not stain with Prussian blue. Which of the following best accounts for pigment accumulation in the liver of this patient?
Select and explain.
A. Advanced age, B. Alzheimer disease, C. Congestive hea failure, D. Diabetic ketoacidosis | A: Advanced age | Answer: A: Advanced age
Explanation: The answer is A: Advanced age. Substances that cannot be metabolized accumulate in cells. Examples include:- (1) endogenous substrates that are not processed because a key enzyme is missing (lysosomal storage diseases) (2) insoluble endogenous pigments (lipofuscin and melanin) (3) exogenous paiculates (silica and carbon) Lipofuscin is a "wear and tear" pigment of aging that accumulates in organs such as the brain, hea, and liver. None of the other choices are associated with lipofuscin accumulation.Diagnosis: Aging, lipofuscin |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Iliac crest graft should ideally be taken from
Select and explain.
A. Lateral aspect, B. Medial aspect, C. Posterosuperior aspect, D. Antero inferior aspect | B: Medial aspect | Answer: B: Medial aspect
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | The lymphatic drainage from the tip of tongue first passes to:
Select and explain.
A. Submental nodes, B. Supra clavicular nodes, C. Sub mandibular nodes, D. Superior deep cervical nodes | A: Submental nodes | Answer: A: Submental nodes
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Gynaecological oncology, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | The following statements are related to clear cell carcinoma of the vagina except :
Select and explain.
A. Common to those whose mothers were given diethylstilbestrol during early pregnancy, B. Vaginal adenosis may progress to this conditions, C. The middle one-third is the commonest site, D. May be multicentric and may involve even the cervix as well | C: The middle one-third is the commonest site | Answer: C: The middle one-third is the commonest site
Explanation: clear cell adenocarcinoma of vagina: Found in adolescent girls who have a history of intrauterine exposure to diethylstilbestrol Incidence following DES exposure is 1:1000 may develop vaginal adenosis lesion usually involves upper third of anterior vaginal wall and cervix may be involved Treatment: radical hysterectomy,vaginectomy with pelvic lymphadenectomy. D.C.DUTTA'S TEXTBOOKOF GYNECOLOGY,Pg no:339,6th edition |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Urethra & Penis, Subject name: Surgery | A 55 years old smoking presents with history of five episodes of macroscopic hematuria each lasting for about 4-5 days in the past five years. Which of the following investigations should be performed to evaluate the suspected diagnosis?
Select and explain.
A. Urine microscopy and cytology, B. X-ray KUB, C. Ultrasound KUB, D. DTPA scan | A: Urine microscopy and cytology | Answer: A: Urine microscopy and cytology
Explanation: Ans. (a) Urine microscopy and cytologyRef: Smith 17th Edition, Pages 308-315Diagnosis of Urinary bladder carcinoma:* Cystoscopy and transurethral resection is the IOC for obvious lesions.* Urinary cytology is the IOC for carcinoma in situ.* Cytological examination of exfoliated cells from tumor is useful in detecting cancer in symptomatic patients and assessing the response to treatment.* Cytological examination is also most useful to detect early recurrence* CT and MRI are used in stagingExfoliative markers:* NMP22 (Nuclear matrix protein 22)* Hyaluronidase* Lewis X ag* Telomerase activity |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Physiology | Right shift of oxygen dissociation curve is caused by?
Select and explain.
A. Hypothermia, B. Hypoxia, C. Alkalosis, D. HbF | B: Hypoxia | Answer: B: Hypoxia
Explanation: Ans. is `b' i.e., Hypoxia |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Infectious disease, Subject name: Pediatrics | The most common manifestation of congenital toxoplasmosis
Select and explain.
A. Deafness, B. Chorioretinitis, C. Hepatosplenomegaly, D. Thrombocytopenia | B: Chorioretinitis | Answer: B: Chorioretinitis
Explanation: *Congenital toxoplasmosis is caused by toxoplasma gondi .The transmissibility increases but the risk of feral disease decreases with advancing pregnancy * The classical triad of toxoplasmosis includes intracranial calcification, hydrocephalus and chorioretinitis. Diagnosis is confirmed by demonstrating IgM in serum of the baby Image : Severe, active retinochoroiditis. Reference : Ghai essential pediatrics, 9 th edition, pgno :264 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | The diagnostic procedure not done in case of ph eochromoc ytoma.
Select and explain.
A. CT scan, B. MRI, C. FNAC, D. MIBG scan | C: FNAC | Answer: C: FNAC
Explanation: FNAC "Percutaneous fine-needle aspiration of chromallin tumors is contraindicated; indeed, pheochronwcytoma should be considered before adrenal lesions are aspirated." -Harrison "Catastrophic hypeensive crisis and fatal cardiac arrhythmias can occur spontaneously or may be triggered by intravenous contrast dye or glucagon injection, needle biopsy of the mass, anesthesia, and surgical procedures." - |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: All India exam, Subject name: Pathology | Which of the following necrosis occurs characteristically in brain infarcts?
Select and explain.
A. Caseous necrosis, B. Fibrinoid necrosis, C. Coagulative necrosis, D. Liquefactive necrosis | D: Liquefactive necrosis | Answer: D: Liquefactive necrosis
Explanation: CNS parenchymal infarcts organize an influx of macrophages into the area of necrosis. The macrophages ingest the lipid-rich, necrotic parenchyma, ultimately conveing the area to a fluid-filled cavity (liquefactive necrosis). This process is usually complete by about 6 months after the development of the infarct. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | In deltoid paralysis, which nerve is involved :
Select and explain.
A. Circumflex N, B. Musculocutaneous N, C. Axillary N, D. Radial N | C: Axillary N | Answer: C: Axillary N
Explanation: C. i.e. Axillary nerve |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Psychiatry | A 41 year old woman presented with a history of aches and pains all over the body and generalized weakness for four years. She cannot sleep because of the illness and has lost her appetite as well. She has a lack of interest in work and doesn't like to meet friends and relatives. She denies feelings of sadness. Her most likely diagnosis is -
Select and explain.
A. Somatoform pain disorder, B. Major depression, C. Somatization disorder, D. Dissociative | B: Major depression | Answer: B: Major depression
Explanation: This is a case of somatized (masked) depression which is a form of major depression in which the depressed patients may present their distress as somatic symptoms, e.g. chronic pain, anorexia (loss of appetite), insomnia (cannot sleep), paresthesia, atypical facial pain, and generalized weakness. Depressive mood is not easily apparent as it is usually hidden behind the somatic symptoms, (e.g. in this question she denies the feeling of sadness). |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Injuries by Sharp Force, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | 'Tentative cuts' are seen with
Select and explain.
A. Homicide, B. Suicide, C. Culpicide, D. Fabricated wounds | B: Suicide | Answer: B: Suicide
Explanation: Ans. b (Suicide) (Ref. FMT by N. Reddy 5th/pg.93)TENTATIVE (preliminary cuts) CUTS# Hesitation cuts derive their name from the hesitation with which these incisions are made by a person intending to commit suicide by a cutting instrument.# He or she usually makes preliminary cuts before gathering sufficient courage to make final deep incision.# These are generally small, multiple, superficial, and usually skin deep.# They are seen with commencement of the incised wound and merge with the main incision. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Somatic Symptom Disorder, Subject name: Psychiatry | Which of the following is FALSE about SOMATIZATION Syndrome -
Select and explain.
A. Involves 2 sexual disturbance Symptoms, B. Two GI symptoms, C. Four pain symptoms, D. Multiple recurrent symptoms | A: Involves 2 sexual disturbance Symptoms | Answer: A: Involves 2 sexual disturbance Symptoms
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Involves 2 sexual disturbance Symptomso For diagnostic criteria at least 1 sexual symptom should be there (not two),o All other diagnostic criteria (other three options) are true.Somatization disordero The essential features of somatization disorder are multiple recurrent somatic symptoms of long duration (chronic) that are caused by psychological basis and no physical illness can be found,o The disorder begins before the age of 30 years and then has a chronic course (over a period of several years).Diagnostic criteria for somatization disordero Each of the following should be present: -Four pain symptoms: - Pain, at least at four different sites or functions - Head (headache), abdomen, back, joint, extremites, chest, rectum, during mensturation or sexual intercourse or urination.Two gastrointestinal symptoms : - Nausea, bloating, vomiting, diarrhea.One sexual symptom : - Erectile dysfunction ( Impotence), ejaculatory dysfunction, irregular menses, excessive menstural bleeding.One pseudoneurological symptom : - Conversion symptoms (impaired coordination or balance, paralysis, weakness, blindness, deafness, glove & stocking anesthesia. Paresthesia, seizure, aphonia); Dissociative symptoms (amnesia); loss of consciousness. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: General anatomy, Subject name: Anatomy | Coagulation defect associated with increased coagulation are seen in
Select and explain.
A. Increased protein C, B. Increased protein S, C. Increased anti thrombin 3, D. Protein C resistance | D: Protein C resistance | Answer: D: Protein C resistance
Explanation: Ref Harrison 16/e p1491 ,9/e p123 Protein C and protein S are two vitamin K-dependent proteins that act in a complex to proteolytically inacti- vate cofactors Va and VIIIa. Protein C activation by thrombomodulin was described earlier; protein S is a cofactor for protein C activity Resistance to activated protein C due to the factor V R506Q (Leiden) mutation is the most common clotting abnormality in patients with venous thromboembolism |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Skin | Patient with leprosy, smear sample taken show 10 - 100 bacilli in one field. Bacterial index is ?
Select and explain.
A. 1+, B. 2+, C. 3+, D. 4+ | D: 4+ | Answer: D: 4+
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., 4+ Bacteriological Index For Leprosy It is a rough index expressing probable number of acid fast bacilli for standardized microscopic field in skin smear. It is indicative of the load of bacteria at the site from which smear is taken. It does not differentiate between live and dead bacilli. It is not an indication of total bacillary load in the body. Ridleys scale is followed to calculate the bacterial index. = no bacilli in 100 fields 1+ = 1 - 10 bacilli in 100 fields 2+ = 1 - 10 bacilli in 10 fields 3+ = 1 - 10 bacilli in 1 fields 4+ = 10 - 100 bacilli in 1 field 5+ = 100 - 1000 bacilli in 1 field 6+ = >1000 bacilli in 1 field. Our patient has 10 - 100 bacilli in 1 field thus the bacteriological index is - 4+ |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Microbiology | Enteroviruses are associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select and explain.
A. Aseptic Meningitis, B. Pleurodynia, C. Herpangina, D. Hemorrhagic fever | D: Hemorrhagic fever | Answer: D: Hemorrhagic fever
Explanation: Acute hemorrhagic fever is not caused by the enteroviruses. It usually causes non specific febrile illness, hand foot mouth disease, Herpangina, coryza, conjunctivitis, pericarditis, myocarditis, gastrointestinal symptoms and neurological symptoms. Ref: Kliegman, Behrman, Jenson, Stanton (2008), "Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics", Chapter 247, "Nonpolio Enteroviruses", Volume 1, Page 1350; Medical Microbiology By Jawetz , 24th Edition, Page 494; Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 1208 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Vestibulobullous disorders, Subject name: Dental | The commonest type of Pemphigus is
Select and explain.
A. Pemphigus vulgaris, B. Pemphigus foliaceous, C. Pemphigus erythematous, D. Pemphigus vegetans | A: Pemphigus vulgaris | Answer: A: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation: Pemphigus vulgaris is the most common form of pemphigus and occurs when antibodies attack Desmoglein 3. Usually begins with painful blisters in your mouth and then on the skin or genital mucous membranes. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1334 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Regional injuries, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | Under-running may involve:
Select and explain.
A. Crush injury abdomen, B. Run over injury, C. Decapitation, D. Chest injury | C: Decapitation | Answer: C: Decapitation
Explanation: Under-running/ tail gating Tail-gating occasionally occurs with cars driving into the back of large trucks. In such case, the windscreen and front of the passenger compament are smashed with severe injuries to the head and in some cases decapitation of the occupants of the front seat. Also seen where the motorcyclist drives under the rear of the truck, causing head injuries and even decapitation. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | The following branches originate directly from the subclavian artery, except
Select and explain.
A. Vertebral, B. Thyro-cervical trunk, C. Internal Thoracic, D. Supra scapular | D: Supra scapular | Answer: D: Supra scapular
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | The highest quantity of lipid and lowest concentration of protein are found in
Select and explain.
A. Chylomicrons, B. Very low density lipoproteins, C. Low density lipoproteins, D. High density lipoproteins | A: Chylomicrons | Answer: A: Chylomicrons
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Skin | A young tourist presents with a skin lesion after being to Rajastan. He presents with an erythematous lesion on the cheek with central crusting. What is the likely dermatological condition?
Select and explain.
A. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis, B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis, C. Lupus vulgaris, D. Chilblains | A: Cutaneous Leishmaniasis | Answer: A: Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
Explanation: A typical lesion of Acute Cutaneous Leishmaniasis is papule at the site of the sand fly bite which enlarges and breaks down in the centre. The ulcer usually has a rolled border. When the lesion heals in a year's time it leaves a distinctive depressed hyper pigmented scar. The typical sites are cheeks and arms (exposed areas). Localised Cutaneous Leishmaniasis (LCL) is seen in India in the forests of Rajastan, caused mostly by Leishmania tropica. Himachal Pradesh is repoed as a recent focus. Ref: Thieme Clinical Companions Dermatology By Wolfram Sterry, Ralf Paus, Walter H. C. Burgdo; Leishmania: After the Genome By Peter J. Myler, Nicolas Fasel, Pages 2-3. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: ENT | Which of the following association is true regarding facial nerve palsy in temporal bone fractures?
Select and explain.
A. Common with Longitudinal fractures, B. Common with Transverse Fracture, C. Always associated with CSF Otorrhea, D. Facial nerve injury is always complete | B: Common with Transverse Fracture | Answer: B: Common with Transverse Fracture
Explanation: Longitudinal fractures of Temporal bone are more common than transverse fracture but, facial nerve injury is most commonly associated with Transverse fracture of the temporal bone. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Genetics, Subject name: Pathology | A 1-year-old female infant has failure to thrive, poor neurologic development, and poor motor function. Physical examination shows a "cherry red" spot on the macula of the retina. The infant's muscle tone is poor. Both parents and a brother and sister are healthy, with no apparent abnormalities. One brother with a similar condition died at the age of 18 months. This genetic disorder most likely resulted from a mutation involving a gene encoding for which of the following?
Select and explain.
A. Mitochondrial enzyme, B. Lysosomal enzyme, C. Cell surface receptor protein, D. Structural protein | B: Lysosomal enzyme | Answer: B: Lysosomal enzyme
Explanation: The findings listed suggest a severe inherited neurologic disease, and the pattern of inheritance (e.g., normal parents, an affected sibling) is consistent with an autosomal recessive disorder. This inheritance pattern and the cherry red spot in the retina are characteristic of Tay-Sachs disease, caused by mutations in the gene that encodes a lysosomal enzyme hexosaminidase A. Mitochondrial genes have a maternal pattern of transmission. Mutations in genes affecting receptor proteins and structural proteins typically give rise to an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Trauma, Subject name: Surgery | In prolactinoma most common symptom other than galactorrea is?
Select and explain.
A. Bitemporal hemianopia, B. Amennorhea, C. Thyroid dysfuntion, D. Headache | B: Amennorhea | Answer: B: Amennorhea
Explanation: Pituitary tumors 1.Eosinophil (Acidophil) adenomas: Tumour is usually small. Rarely it causes compressive features. It secretes excess growth hormone causing acromegaly in adults and gigantism in children. 2. Chromophobe adenomas are common in females and in the age group--20-50 years. Initially, it is intrasellar and after sometime becomes suprasellar. Later, it extends intracranially often massively, causing features of intracranial space occupying lesion. It presents with myxoedema, amenorrhoea, infeility, headache, visual disturbances, bitemporal hemianopia, blindness, intracranial hypeension, epilepsy. Differential diagnosis: Meningiomas, aneurysms. CT scan, angiogram, X-ray skull are diagnostic. Treatment is surgical decompression by craniotomy through subfrontal approach or trans-sphenoidal approach. Deep external radiotherapy and steroids are also used. 3. Basophil adenomas are usually small. They secrete ACTH and presents as Cushing's disease with all its features. 4. Prolactin-secreting adenomas causes infeility, amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Ref: SRB's Manual of Surgery 5th Pgno : 1105 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Miscellaneous (Lens), Subject name: Ophthalmology | Lens develops from.
Select and explain.
A. Neuroectoderm, B. Surface ectoderm, C. Mesoderm, D. Neural crest | B: Surface ectoderm | Answer: B: Surface ectoderm
Explanation: Ans. (b) Surface ectodermSurface EctodermNeural EctodermMesodermNeural Crest* Conjunctival Epithelium* Corneal Epithelium* Lacrimal gland* Tarsal gland* Lens* Smooth muscle of Iris* Iris Epithelium* Ciliary Epithelium* Retina & its pigment epithelium* Optic nerve fibre* Part of vitrous* EOM* Sclera* Iris* Vascular endothelium* Choroid* Part of vitrous* Corneal stroma* Ciliary ganglion* Schwann cell* Uveal and conj melanocytes* Meningeal sheath of ON* Part of vitrous |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | The lower lip gets its sensory supply through the:
Select and explain.
A. Buccal branch of the facial nerve, B. Buccal branch of the mandibular nerve, C. Mandibular branch of the facial nerve, D. Mental nerve | D: Mental nerve | Answer: D: Mental nerve
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Rough, poorly polished areas of pontics may cause
Select and explain.
A. Halitosis, B. Discomfort, C. Chronic inflammation of the ridge tissue, D. All of the above | D: All of the above | Answer: D: All of the above
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | Manoeuvre carried out for diagnosing medial meniscus injury is: March 2010, March 2013 (c, d)
Select and explain.
A. McMurray's test, B. Lachmann's test, C. Valgus stress test, D. Varus stress test | A: McMurray's test | Answer: A: McMurray's test
Explanation: Ans. A: McMurray's Test McMurray's test is performed for meniscus injury For medial meniscus: Patient lying flat (non-weight bearing), the knee is completely flexed. The foot is rotated externally and the leg abducted. The joint is now slowly extended keeping the leg externally rotated and abducted. As the torn cailage gets caught during this manoeuvre, the patient will experience pain or a click may be heard and felt. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Subject name: Pathology | A young boy came with dyspnea and was found to have a mediastinal mass. Which of the following is known to produce mediastinal lymphadenopathy?
Select and explain.
A. Diffuse large B cell Lymphoma, B. B cell rich T cell lymphoma, C. Mediastinal rich B cell lymphoma, D. T cell Lymphoblastic ALL | D: T cell Lymphoblastic ALL | Answer: D: T cell Lymphoblastic ALL
Explanation: mediastinal lymphadenopathy ,sternal tenderness and mediastinal mass are seen with ALL. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Metabolic disorders, Subject name: Pediatrics | Only male are affected in
Select and explain.
A. Scheie's syndrome, B. Hunter's syndrome, C. Hurler's syndrome, D. Gaucher's disease | B: Hunter's syndrome | Answer: B: Hunter's syndrome
Explanation: Hunter's syndrome belongs to Type II mucopolysaccharidoses in which mucopolysaccharides accumulate in the lysosomes causing disorganization of the cell structure & function.This syndrome is characterised by mild mental retardation;marked skeletal changes like thickening of the skull,marked deformity of sella tursica,broad spatula like ribs,beak shaped veebrae(around L1 veebra) and proximal tapering of metacarpals-these abnormalities are referred to as dysostosis multiplex;coarse facies & hepatosplenomegaly. Reference:Essential pediatrics-Ghai,8th edition,page no: 660,661. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Immunology, Subject name: Microbiology | Adoptive immunity is by?
Select and explain.
A. Infection, B. Injection of antibodies, C. Injection of lymphocytes, D. Immunization | C: Injection of lymphocytes | Answer: C: Injection of lymphocytes
Explanation: Aadoptive immunity: a special type of immunisation is the injection of immunologically competent lymphocytes. - instead of whole lymphocytes, an extract of immunologically competent lymphocytes, known as the transfer factor can be used. Reference: Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no:84 <\p> |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Sexual Disorders, Subject name: Psychiatry | A 41 y/o male presents with complaints of inability to achieve proper erections during sexual intercourse. He repos that there were no abnormalities till last month, when on one occasion he tried having sex with wife while he was drunk. He was not able to achieve a proper erection at that time and since than, on four other occasions , he was not able to have an erection during attempted sex. He repos that his morning erections are fine and erection during masturbation was also normal. He is a diabetic, and the blood repos show, FBS-103 mg/dl, HbA1C- 6.6. His BP was 138/88 mm Hg What is the likely cause of erection disturbances?
Select and explain.
A. Anxiety, B. Diabetes, C. Alcohol, D. Hypeension | A: Anxiety | Answer: A: Anxiety
Explanation: History of sudden onset, normal morning erections and normal erection during masturbation is suggestive of Psychogenic Erectile dysfunction. The cause is usually performance anxiety. To differentiate between psychogenic and organic erectile dysfunction best test is ask for nocturnal / early morning erections as patient is relaxed in these conditions. So in the above case it rules out all organic causes. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | All of the following can cause hypersecretion of prolactin, except?
Select and explain.
A. Prolactinoma, B. Haloperidol, C. Hypothyroidism, D. Cabergoline | D: Cabergoline | Answer: D: Cabergoline
Explanation: The function of dopamine is to supress the prolactin secretion. Prolactin agonists reduce secretion of prolactin and antagonists increase the secretion of prolactin. Cabergoline is a long acting dopamine agonist. The drug suppresses prolactin secretion. Used to treat prolactinoma. All others can cause increased secretion. High prolactin levels are also associated with Hypothyroidism. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Ear, Subject name: ENT | A 10 years boy presented with sensory neural deafness not benefited with hearing aid, Next treatment is
Select and explain.
A. Cochlear implant, B. Fenestromy, C. Stapedectomy, D. Stapes fixation | A: Cochlear implant | Answer: A: Cochlear implant
Explanation: A. i.e. (Cochlear implant) (125- Maqbool 11th) (121- Dhingra 4th)COCHLEAR IMPLANT - is indicated in patients with bilateral severe sensorineural deafness who do not respond to amplified sound stimuli* Cochlear implants are more useful in post lingually deaf patients i.e. who lost their hearing after acquisition of language* Stapedectomy with prosthesis replacement is the treatment of choice for otosclerosis*** Pathway for extension of the infection from meninges to labyrinth - Cochlear aqueduct*** **Cochlear implants electrodes are most commonly placed at cochlea to directly stimulate the fibre of VIII. nerve |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Nervous System, Subject name: Surgery | A 15-year-old boy complains of right-sided weakness and gait impairment. A CT scan shows a large, non-enhancing cyst in the posterior cranial fossa, with an enhancing tumor nodule in the left cerebellum. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select and explain.
A. An arachnoid cyst, B. A cystic astrocytoma, C. Rathke's cleft cyst, D. Glioblastoma multiforme | B: A cystic astrocytoma | Answer: B: A cystic astrocytoma
Explanation: Cystic astrocytoma's are neoplasms of the CNS. They usually consist of a large, non-enhancing cyst on the wall of which is an enhancing tumor nodule. They are most commonly found within the substance of the cerebellar hemispheres of children and young adults. A Rathke's cleft cyst is a remnant of the embryologic Rathke's pouch. These are found within the sella turcica. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anaesthesia | Ketamine produces ?
Select and explain.
A. Emergence delirium, B. Pain on injection, C. Bronchoconstriction, D. Depression of cardiovascular system | A: Emergence delirium | Answer: A: Emergence delirium
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Emergence delirium Ketamine The primary site of action is in the coex and subcoical areas; not in the reticular activating system (site of action of barbiturates). It acts on NMDA receptors. Sho duration of action (10-15 minutes) is due to redistribution from brain and blood to other tissues of the body. Ketamine is different from most other anaesthetic induction agents in that it has significant analgesic action. Ketamine increases IOT and cerebral metabolism --> contraindicated in head injury. It causes sympathetic stimulation with elevation of HR, CO & BP --) contraindicated in hypeension and ischemic hea disease. It also raises IOT --> contraindicated in glaucoma. It relieves bronchospasm --> intravenous anaesthetic of choice in asthmatics (inhalation anaesthetic of choice in asthmatic is halothane). Injection is not painful (All other inducing agents cause pain on injection). It is i.v. anaesthetic of choice in children (Sevoflurane is inhalation agent of choice). Because it causes sympathetic stimulation it is intravenous anaesthetic of choice in patients with shock and hypovolumia. It has no muscle relaxant propey rather muscle tone is increased. Airway reflexes (pharyngeal and laryngeal) are not depressed --> intravenous anaesthetic of choice for emergency anaesthesia (no starvation is required). Ketamine produces emergence reaction during awakening from anaesthesia --> vivid dreaming, illusions, extracorporeal experiences, excitment, confusion, fear and euphoria --> contraindicated in psychiatric illness like schizophrenia. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Spleen, Subject name: Surgery | Splenectomy is done to tide over the acute crises of uncontrollable:
Select and explain.
A. ITP, B. TTP, C. HUS, D. All of the above | A: ITP | Answer: A: ITP
Explanation: Indications of splenectomy in ITP: Failure of medical therapy Prolonged use of steroids with undesirable effects Most cases of first relapse Splenectomy provides a permanent response without subsequent need for steroids in 75-85% of patients. Laparoscopic splenectomy has become the gold standard for ITP patients. Responses usually occur within the first postoperative week. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | Osteoahritis not seen in ?
Select and explain.
A. Ankle joints, B. Knee joints, C. Hip joints, D. I stmetacarpophalangeal joint | A: Ankle joints | Answer: A: Ankle joints
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ankle joints OA affects ceain joints, yet spares others. Commonly affected joints include the cervical and lumbosacral spine, hip, knee, and first metatarsal phalangeal joint (MTP). In the hands, the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints and the base of the thumb are often affected. Usually spared are the wrist, elbow, and ankle. Our joints were designed, in an evolutionary sense, for brachiating apes, animals that still walked on four limbs. We thus develop OA in joints that were ill designed for human tasks such as pincer grip (OA in the thumb base) and walking upright (OA in knees and hips). Some joints, like the ankles, may be spared because their aicular cailage may be uniquely resistant to loading stresses. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | Compared with cow's milk, mother's milk has more-
Select and explain.
A. Lactose, B. Vitamin D, C. Proteins, D. Fat | A: Lactose | Answer: A: Lactose
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lactose Lactose (g) Cow's milk 4.4 Human milk 7.4 Proteins (g) 3.2 1.1 Fat (g) 4.1 3.4 Calcium (mg) 120 28 Iron (mg) 0.2 1.0 Water (g) 87 Energy (Kcal) 67 65 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Respiratory, Subject name: Medicine | Characteric finding in restrictive lung disease is:
Select and explain.
A. Decreased FEV1, B. Increased TLC, C. Normal FEV1/VC, D. All | C: Normal FEV1/VC | Answer: C: Normal FEV1/VC
Explanation: Ans. c (Normal FEV, /Vc). (Ref. Harrison, Principles of Medicine, 18th/1448)OBSTRUCTIVE PATTERNRESTRICTIVE PATTERN (Al 2005)EXTRAPARENCHYMAL PATTERN (INSPIRATORY DYSFUNCTION)Decreased expiratory flow rates (hallmark)Normal forced expiratory flow ratesExpiratory flow rates not affectedDecreased FEV1/VC (in fully established disease)-FEVl/FVC variableTLC normal or increased (Minor change)Decreased lung violume (TLC and VC)TLC not predictableIncreased residual volume (striking)Decreased residual volumeIncreased RVIncresed ratio of RV/TLC--Decreased VC-Decreased MIP |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Down beat nystagmus is seen in?
Select and explain.
A. Arnold chiari malformation, B. Brain stem damage, C. Pontine hemorrhage, D. Labyrinthine damage | A: Arnold chiari malformation | Answer: A: Arnold chiari malformation
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Arnold chiari malformation Down-beat nystagmus are seen in cerebellar lesion and Arnold-chiary malformation |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | Which of the following is not true for ZollingerEllison syndrome: September 2008
Select and explain.
A. Recurrence after operation, B. Reduced BAO : MAO ratio, C. Gastrin producing tumour, D. Diarrhoea may be a presenting feature | B: Reduced BAO : MAO ratio | Answer: B: Reduced BAO : MAO ratio
Explanation: Ans. B: Reduced BAO : MAO ratio Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) is a rare condition characterized by peptic ulcers that are refractory to conventional medical therapy. Gastrin-producing tumors or gastrinomas cause excessive gastric acid secretion, leading to ulcers of the upper GI tract, as well as diarrhea and severe abdominal pain. Laboratory studies to confirm the diagnosis of ZES include the following: Measurements of fasting serum gastrin levels - Gastrin levels higher than 100 pg,/mL are highly suggestive of ZES. If the gastric pH level is less than 2.5, a gastrin level of higher than 1000 pg/mL is diagnostic of ZES. If the patient is not receiving acid-suppressing medication and the gastric pH levels are higher than 2, ZES can be ruled out. Secretin stimulation test After blood to measure the basal gastrin level is obtained, 2 IU/kg of secretin is intravenously administered. Blood is obtained at 2.5 minutes, 5 minutes, 10 minutes, 15 minutes, and 30 minutes. An increase of serum gastrin levels to higher than 200 pg/mL is diagnostic of ZES. - It is the most impoant diagnostic test to exclude other conditions with increased acid secretion, hypergastrinemia, or both. - Clinical conditions in which patients present with hypergastrinemia, such as gastric outlet obstruction, pernicious anemia, renal failure, and achlorhydria due to atrophic gastritis, must be excluded with secretin provocative testing. Measurement of basal acid output - Before measurement of the basal acid output (BAO), acid-inhibitory agents must be discontinued: 24 hours for H2 receptor antagonists and 7 days for proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). - In the 24 hours prior to the test, the patient receives antacids. - In an unoperated stomach, a BAO of more than 15 mEq/h is diagnostic of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. If the patient underwent gastric resection for acid reduction, a BAO of more than 10 mEq/h is diagnostic for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. If the patient has multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN-1), other laboratory abnormalities may be suggestive of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. - High plasma calcium levels High parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels - High prolactin levels |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Unknown | All are seen in Malignant hyperthermia except :
Select and explain.
A. Bradycardia, B. Hyperkalemia, C. Metabolic acidosis, D. Hypertension | A: Bradycardia | Answer: A: Bradycardia
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Proteins and Amino Acids, Subject name: Biochemistry | Edman's reagent is -
Select and explain.
A. 2-4 dinitrophenol, B. 1 -fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene, C. Phenyl-isocyanate, D. Cynogen bromide | C: Phenyl-isocyanate | Answer: C: Phenyl-isocyanate
Explanation: Ans. is 6c' i.e., Phenyl-isocyanateo Determination of amino acid sequence (sequence analysis) is performed by Edman degradation method on automatic mechines, called cyclic sequentors. Edman's reagent is phenyl-isothiocyanate, and forms a covalent bond to N- terminal of amino-acid. This can be identified.o Sanger's reagent (l-fluoro-2,4-dinitrobenzene) can be used in place of Edman's reagent. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Microbiology | Farmer presents with the features of high fever, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, vomiting and diarrhea and 'Ivpotension. Which stain will help in the diagnosis
Select and explain.
A. Neisser stain, B. Wayson's stain, C. Albe's stain, D. McFadyean's stain | B: Wayson's stain | Answer: B: Wayson's stain
Explanation: Ans. b. Wayson's stain Farmer presents with the features of high fever, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, vomiting and diarrhea and hypotension. This clinical picture is suggestive of Bubonic plague. Bubonic plague Bubonic plague symptoms can occur within two to six days of being infected by the bacteria Yersinia pestisdeg. If left untreated, symptoms, such as vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea, can progress rapidly to septicemic plaguedeg. Approximately 10 to 20 percent of people with bubonic plague symptoms will also develop symptoms in the lungs. This is called pneumonic plague, and is often fataldeg. Plague Caused by bacteria Yersinia pestisdeg. Animal reservoir for Yersinia pestis: Rodentsdeg Vector: Rat flea (Xenopsylla cheopsisdeg) carries infection from rat to rat and rat to humans Characterized by rapid onset of fever and other systemic manifestations of Gram (-)ve bacterial infections. It is of Bubonic Plague Incubation period 2-7 daysdeg MC type of plague and almost always caused by bite of infected fleadeg. MC site of bubo- femoral, inguinal regiondeg >axillary, cervical. Distinguished from lymphadenitis by its rapid onset, its extreme tenderness, accompanying signs of toxemia and absence of cellulites or obvious ascending lymphadenitis DIC is common and may lead to gangrenedeg. Y. pestis can also be cultured from blood of most bubonic plague patientdeg. Septicemic Plague: Often present with GI symptoms, DIC, multiorgan failuredeg Incubation period 2-7 days Pneumonic Plague Most infectious, most fatal type of plague with incubation period of 1-3 daysdeg Primary pneumonia: Cyanosis is very prominent, with bloody mucoid sputumdeg Secondary pneumonia: Diffuse interstitial pneumonia, less infectious. Diagnosis Yersinia pestis is best demonstrated by polychromatic stains (Wayson, Wright-Giemsadeg). These polychromatic stains accurately highlight bipolar stainingdeg characteristics of these gram negative bacilli |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Area of Cornea indented in Goldman Applanation tonometer for measuring IOP
Select and explain.
A. 3.66mm, B. 3.6mm, C. 3.0mm, D. 3.06mm | D: 3.06mm | Answer: D: 3.06mm
Explanation: Area of Cornea indented in Goldman Applanation tonometer for measuring IOP is 3.06mm. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: ENT | Not used in the treatment of Juvenile Larynegeal papillomatosis
Select and explain.
A. INF α, B. INF β, C. Bevacizumab, D. Cedofovir | B: INF β | Answer: B: INF β
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | The commonest extradural spinal tumour is ?
Select and explain.
A. Neurofibroma, B. Glioma, C. Meningioma, D. Metastasis | D: Metastasis | Answer: D: Metastasis
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Metastasis |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Causes of acute flaccid paralysis -
Select and explain.
A. Poliomyelitis, B. Tick paralysis, C. ADEM, D. All of the above | D: All of the above | Answer: D: All of the above
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | A 45 year old woman presents with a hard and mobile lump in the breast. Next investigation is -
Select and explain.
A. FNAC, B. USG, C. Mammography, D. Excision biopsy | A: FNAC | Answer: A: FNAC
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., FNAC In any patient with a breast lump or other symptoms suggestive of carcinoma, diagnosis should be made by a combination of : 'Triple Assessment' : a. Clinical assessment b. Radiological imaging c. Tissue sampling for either cytological or histological examination. FNAC is more than often the first investigation for a tissue assessment. Bailey writes ? "FNAC is the least invasive technique for obtaining a cell diagnosis and is very accurate if both operator and cytologists are experienced. However false negatives do occur, mainly through sampling error, and invasive cancer cannot be distinguished from 'in situ' disease. A histological specimen taken by core biopsy allows a definitive preoperative diagnosis, differentiates between duct carcinoma in situ (DCIS) and invasive disease and also allows the tumor to be stained for receptor status. This is impoant before commencing neoadjuvant therapy." |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Regulation of Respiration, Subject name: Physiology | Primary Regulator for central chemoreceptor -
Select and explain.
A. PaCO2, B. PCO2, C. H+, D. O2 | C: H+ | Answer: C: H+
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., H+ Central chemoreceptors o These receptors are located in a chemosensitive area on the ventral surface of the medulla near the exit of the ninth and tenth cranial nerves. The primary stimulus for the central chemoreceptors is an increase in the hydrogen ion concentration. Stimulation of central chemoreceptors by increased hydrogen ion concentration leads to excitation of the respiratory neurons, thereby producing an increase in the rate and depth of respiration o Although the primary stimulus for central chemoreceptors is an increase in hydrogen ion concentration, in actual practice the physiological stimulus is an increase in PCO2. The reason is that hydrogen ions cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. Therefore, a change in the blood hydrogen ion concentration does not change the hydrogen ion concentration in the immediate vicinity of the chemosensitive neurons (i.e., in CSF and brain interstitial fluid). On the other hand, CO2 being lipid soluble can easily cross the blood-brain barrier. It enters the brain, where it is hydrated to give rise to H+ and HCO2 ions. Now these H+ directly stimulate the central chemoreceptors. o Thus, central chemoreceptors are directly stimulated by an increase in H+ concentration in CSF and brain interstitial tissue, which is brought about by the change in arterial PCO2 (PaCO2). o Change in CSF & Brain interstitial tissue - | H+ concentration (Primary direct stimulus) o Change in Blood - | PCO2 (Actual physiological stimulus). o Central chemoreceptors are not stimulated by hypoxia; rather like any other cells, they are depressed by hypoxia. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | The commonest cause of primary Amenorrhoea is:
Select and explain.
A. Genital tuberculosis, B. Ovarian dysgenesis, C. Mullerian duct anomalies, D. Hypothyroidism | B: Ovarian dysgenesis | Answer: B: Ovarian dysgenesis
Explanation: Most common cause of Primary Amenorrhea = Gonadal dysgenesis/ovarian dysgenesis
2nd most common cause of Primary Amenorrhea = Mullerian agenesis (Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser Syndrome)
“Mullerian agenesis is a relatively common cause of primary amenorrhea, more frequent than congenital androgen insensitivity and second only to gonadal dysgenesis”
3rd most common cause is testicular feminizing syndrome. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Microbiology | All the following types of hypersensitivity reactions can be demonstrated by skin test except ?
Select and explain.
A. Type I, B. Type II, C. Type III, D. Type IV | B: Type II | Answer: B: Type II
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Type II Has been explained |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Endocrinology, Subject name: Pharmacology | All of these hormones use cAMP as second messenger except:
Select and explain.
A. Corticotropin, B. Dopamine, C. Glucagon, D. Vasopressin | D: Vasopressin | Answer: D: Vasopressin
Explanation: Ans. (D) Vasopressin(Ref: Katzung 11/e p301, Gationg 22/e p41-43)Vasopressin acts via V1 and V2 receptors. V1 receptors use IP3 -DAG-Ca2+ pathway whereas V2 use cAMP as second messenger. All other drugs mentioned in the question act by cAMP pathway only. Thus, all of these use cAMP as second messenger, but if we need to choose one option we can answer vasopressin as it is acting through IP3 -DAG-Ca2+ pathway also. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Operative Obs, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | An elderly multigravida female presents in labor. She has multiple fibroids in lower uterine segment. Management is:
Select and explain.
A. Vaginal delivery, B. Trial of labor, C. LSCS, D. Classical cesarean followed by hysterectomy | D: Classical cesarean followed by hysterectomy | Answer: D: Classical cesarean followed by hysterectomy
Explanation: Ans. is d, i.e. Classical cesarean section followed by hysterectomySince this female is multigravida with multiple fibroids in lower uterine segments - vaginal delivery is not possible as multiple fibroids are present in lower uterine segment. We will have to do cesarean - but LSCS is also not feasible due to fibroids in lower segment (a lot of bleeding will occur if we cut through fibroid). Hence classical cesarean section should be done. The treatment of multiple fibroids in a multipara is hysterectomy, so classical cesarean section should be followed by hysterectomy). |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | All post-operative patients must be supplemented with
oxygen concentration of at least
:
Select and explain.
A. 50-60%, B. 40-45%, C. 30-35%, D. 20-25% | C: 30-35% | Answer: C: 30-35%
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Other Key Definitions & Concepts, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | Microfalaria in Culex depicts what kind of Biological transmission?
Select and explain.
A. Cyclo-developmental, B. Cyclo-propagative, C. Developmental, D. Propagative | A: Cyclo-developmental | Answer: A: Cyclo-developmental
Explanation: Microfalaria in culex is an example of cyclo-developmental transmission. In Culex mosquito, it undergoes only development. stages will change There is no multiplication taking place in it. TYPES OF BIOLOGICAL TRANSMISSION- Propogative transmission Cyclo-developmental Cyclo-propogative |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Head and neck, Subject name: Anatomy | All extra-ocular muscles are supplied by the oculomotor nerve except
Select and explain.
A. Superior rectus, B. Inferior oblique, C. Lateral rectus, D. Medial rectus | C: Lateral rectus | Answer: C: Lateral rectus
Explanation: The superior oblique is supplied by the trochlear nerve The lateral rectus is supplied by abducent nerve The superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus and inferior oblique are supplied by occulomotor nerve Ref BDC volume 3,sixth edition pg 208 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: General anatomy, Subject name: Anatomy | Which of the following chemical mediator of inflammation is an example of a C-X-C or alpha chemokine
Select and explain.
A. Lipoxin LXA4, B. Interleukin IL8, C. Interleukin IL 6, D. Monocyte chemo attractant protein MPC1 | B: Interleukin IL8 | Answer: B: Interleukin IL8
Explanation: Ref Robbins 9/e p87 IL-8, also known as neutrophil chemotactic factor, has two primary functions. It induces chemotaxis in target cells, primarily neutrophils but also other granulocytes, causing them to migrate toward the site of infection. IL-8 also stimulates phagocytosis once they have arrived. IL-8 is also known to be a potent promoter of angiogenesis. In target cells, IL-8 induces a series of physiological responses required for migration and phagocytosis, such as increases in intracellular Ca2+, exocytosis (e.g. histamine release), and the respiratory burst. IL-8 can be secreted by any cells with toll-like receptors that are involved in the innate immune response. Usually, it is the macrophages that see an antigen first, and thus are the first cells to release IL-8 to recruit other cells. Both monomer and homodimerforms of IL-8 have been repoed to be potent inducers of the chemokine receptors CXCR1 and CXCR2. The homodimer is more potent, but methylation of Leu25 can block the activity of homodimers. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anaesthesia | Epidural anaesthesia is preferred over spinal anaesthesia because: September 2006
Select and explain.
A. Prolonged duration of effect, B. Cheaper, C. Less incidence of intravascular injection, D. Less incidence of epidural hematoma | A: Prolonged duration of effect | Answer: A: Prolonged duration of effect
Explanation: Ans. A: Prolonged duration of effect Epidural anaesthesia, a form of regional anaesthesia involving injection of drugs through a catheter placed into the epidural space. The injection can cause both a loss of sensation (anaesthesia) and a loss of pain (analgesia), by blocking the transmission of signals through nerves in or near the spinal cord The anaesthetist may use epidural analgesia in addition to general anaesthesia. This may reduce the patient's requirement for opioid analgesics. This is suitable for a wide variety of surgery, for example gynaecological surgery (e.g. hysterectomy), ohopaedic surgery (e.g. hip replacement), general surgery (e.g. laparotomy) and vascular surgery (e.g. open aoic aneurysm repair) which are longer duration surgeries. Other features of epidural anaesthesia: Expensive compared to spinal anaesthesia More incidence of intravascular injection (epidural space has venous plexus of Batson) More incidence of epidural hematoma Level of block can be changed by increasing the dose through the catheter |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | Which of the following drugs cause relaxation of LES? 1. Nitrates 2. Histamine blockers 3. Morphine 4. Atropine 5. Calcium channel blockers
Select and explain.
A. 1,2 & 3, B. 1,4 & 5, C. 1,2 & 5, D. All | B: 1,4 & 5 | Answer: B: 1,4 & 5
Explanation: Factor causing relaxation of LES Factor increasing LES pressure Pharmacological agents:nitrates, anticholinergics, barbiturates, calcium channel blockers, caffeine, theophylline, diazepam, dopamine, prostaglandin E1 and E2 and meperidine Pepperdine Chocolate Coffee Alcohol Smoking Fat Antacids Cholinergics Domperidone Metoclopramide Prostaglandin F2 Also know: LES pressure is higher in the supine position than in the upright position. Ref: Schwarz 9/e, Page 812; Harrison 17/e, Page 1741. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Nervous System, Subject name: Physiology | Plasma membrane is freely permeable to -
Select and explain.
A. Glucose, B. Urea, C. Glycerol, D. Alcohol | D: Alcohol | Answer: D: Alcohol
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Alcoholo As the major middle portion of membrane (core of the membrane) is formed by hydrophobic region of phospholipids, this portion is impermeable to the usual water-soluble substances, such as ions, glucose and urea.o Conversely, fat-soluble substances, such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, and alcohol, can penetrate this portion of the membrane with ease.o Permeability coefficient and permeability of some important molecules in increasing order of frequency are Na+ < K+ < Cl- < Glucose < Tryptophan < Urea = Glycerol< Indole < H2O. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Which of the following drugs is not useful in the management of Postpaum Hemorrhage(PPH)?
Select and explain.
A. Mifepristone, B. Misoprostol, C. Oxytocin, D. Ergotamine | A: Mifepristone | Answer: A: Mifepristone
Explanation: Mifepristone is a progestin analogue and it blocks the effects of progesterone. It is used as a medical termination of pregnancy in the first trimester and as a post-coital contraceptive. While misoprostol, oxytocin and ergotamine are oxytocics and as uterine stimulants are used in the management of postpaum hemorrhage. Ref: Dutta textbook of Obstetrics 6th edition, Pages 175, 550, 411-22 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: All India exam, Subject name: Pharmacology | Which is not a alkylating agent?
Select and explain.
A. Cyclophosphamide, B. Chlorambucil, C. 5-FU, D. Melphalan | C: 5-FU | Answer: C: 5-FU
Explanation: 5-FU is an metabolite |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | 100% Oxygen is not effective in: March 2005
Select and explain.
A. Pulmonary edema, B. MI, C. Tetralogy of fallot, D. COPD | C: Tetralogy of fallot | Answer: C: Tetralogy of fallot
Explanation: Ans. C: Tetralogy of fallot |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | The lymph nodes first involved in cancer of the skin of the scrotum are -
Select and explain.
A. Superfical inguinal, B. External iliac, C. Para aortic, D. Gland of Cloquet | A: Superfical inguinal | Answer: A: Superfical inguinal
Explanation: • Squamous cell carcinoma of scrotumQ, most commonly resulted from exposure to environmental carcinogens including chimney soot, tars, paraffin and petroleum products.
• Superficial inguinal lymph nodes are the first lymph nodes involved.
Risk Factors
• Most cases results from poor hygiene and chronic inflammation.
Diagnosis
• Diagnosis is established by biopsy of scrotal skin.
Treatment
• Wide excision with 2 cm margins should be performed for malignant tumors.
• Prognosis correlates with presence or absence of nodal involvement. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | The primary therapy to prevent oesophageal varices is :
Select and explain.
A. Surgical approaches, B. Sclerotherapy, C. TIPPS, D. Shunt operation | B: Sclerotherapy | Answer: B: Sclerotherapy
Explanation: The treatment of patients with varices that have never bled is usually referred to as prophylactic therapy (eg, prophylactic sclerotherapy or prophylactic propranolol). By convention, procedures performed on patients who have bled previously are referred to as therapeutic (eg, therapeutic shunts). Prophylactic therapy is of value, since the moality rate of variceal bleeding is high (25%), the risk of bleeding in patients with varices is relatively high (30%), and varices can often be diagnosed before the initial episode of bleeding. Ref :Jarnagin W.R. (2010). Chapter 24. Liver & Poal Venous System. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Respiratory system, Subject name: Pathology | The followng does not occur with asbestosis -
Select and explain.
A. Methaemoglobinemia, B. Pneumoconiosis, C. Pleural mesothelioma, D. Pleural calcification | A: Methaemoglobinemia | Answer: A: Methaemoglobinemia
Explanation: Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan) 6th edition,page no.492 Overexposure to asbestos is associated with 3 types of lesions: asbestosis, pleural disease and ceain tumours. A. ASBESTOSIS. The gross pulmonary fibrosis caused by asbestos exposure and histologic demonstration of asbestos bodies on asbestos fibres is termed asbestosis. Grossly, the affected lungs are small and firm with cailage-like thickening of the pleura. The sectioned surface shows variable degree of pulmonary fibrosis, especially in the subpleural areas and in the bases of lungs . The advanced cases may show cystic changes. Histologically, the following changes are observed: 1. There is non-specific interstitial fibrosis. 2. There is presence of characteristic asbestos bodies in the involved areas . These are asbestos fibres coated with glycoprotein and haemosiderin and appear beaded or dumbbell-shaped. The coating stains positively for Prussian blue reaction. 3. There may be changes of emphysema in the pulmonary parenchyma between the areas of interstitial fibrosis. 4. The involvement of hilar lymph nodes in asbestosis is not as significant as in silicosis. B. PLEURAL DISEASE. Pleural disease in asbestos exposure may produce one of the following 3 types of lesions: 1. Pleural effusion. It develops in about 5% of asbestos workers and is usually serious type. Pleural effusion is generally accompanied by subpleural asbestosis. 2. Visceral pleural fibrosis. Quite often, asbestosis is associated with dense fibrous thickening of the visceral pleura encasing the lung. 3. Pleural plaques. Fibrocalcific pleural plaques are the most common lesions associated with asbestos exposure. Grossly, the lesions appear as circumscribed, flat, small (upto 1 cm in diameter), firm or hard, bilateral nodules. They are seen more often on the posterolateral pa of parietal pleura and on the pleural surface of the diaphragm. Microscopically, they consist of hyalinised collagenous tissue which may be calcified so that they are visible on chest X-ray. Asbestos bodies are generally not found within the plaques. C. TUMOURS. Asbestos exposure predisposes to a number of cancers, most impoantly bronchogenic carcinoma and malignant mesothelioma . A few others are: carcinomas of oesophagus, stomach, colon, kidneys and larynx and various lymphoid malignancies. 1. Bronchogenic carcinoma is the most common malignancy in asbestos workers. Its incidence is 5 times higher in non-smoker asbestos workers than the nonsmoker general population and 10 times higher in smoker asbestos workers than the other smokers. 2. Malignant mesothelioma is an uncommon tumour but association with asbestos exposure is present in 30 to 80% of cases with mesothelioma. The exposure need not be heavy because mesothelioma is known to develop in people living near asbestos plants or in wives of asbestos workers. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | True about phobia are all, except: NIMHANS 08; NEET 13
Select and explain.
A. Generalized anxiety, B. Avoiding paicular situation, C. Fear and anxiety of specific thing, D. Insight is present | A: Generalized anxiety | Answer: A: Generalized anxiety
Explanation: Ans. Generalized anxiety |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pediatrics | An adolescent is brought to the emergency depament following an episode of myoclonic jerks at morning after waking up. His consciousness was not impaired. His EEG shows generalized 3-4 Hz spike and slow wave complexes. Most probable diagnosis is?
Select and explain.
A. Generalized tonic clonic seizure, B. Absent seizure, C. Temporal lobe epilepsy, D. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy | D: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy | Answer: D: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
Explanation: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is a subtype of idiopathic generalized epilepsy with onset usually between 8 and 20 years of age. Myoclonic jerks, especially in the morning, are of variable intensity ranging from simple twitching ("flying saucer syndrome") to falls; consciousness is not impaired in it. It is precipitated by alcohol and sleep deprivation. Patients will have normal intelligence. The typical interictal EEG abnormality consists of a generalized 4- to 6-Hz spike or polyspike and slow-wave discharges lasting 1-20 seconds. Usually, 1-3 spikes precede each slow wave. Also know: In Generalized tonic clonic seizure EEG shows a normal background with generalized epileptiform discharges such as spike or polyspike wave complexes at 2.5 to 4 Hz. During absence seizures there is an abrupt onset of bilaterally synchronous and symmetrical 3 Hz spike-wave discharge, irrespective of whether typical absences are simple or complex. Ictal recordings from patients with typical temporal lobe epilepsy usually exhibit 5-7 Hz, rhythmic, sharp theta activity, maximal in the sphenoidal and the basal temporal electrodes on the side of seizure origin. Ref: A-Z of Neurological Practice: A Guide to Clinical Neurology By Andrew J. Larner, Alasdair J Coles, Neil J. Scolding, Roger A Barker, 2011, Page 368 ; Clinical Electroencephalography by Misra,2005, Page 188 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anaesthesia | Thiopentone is not used in?
Select and explain.
A. Induction of anesthesia, B. Medically induced coma, C. As truth serum, D. As antidepressant | D: As antidepressant | Answer: D: As antidepressant
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., As antidepressant |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | True about tracheal bifurcation -
Select and explain.
A. At lower border of T4, B. At lower border of T4 Tracheal ring has hoop-shaped process, C. Called Carina, D. All of the above | D: All of the above | Answer: D: All of the above
Explanation: Trachea
The trachea is 10-15 cm long tube formed by C-Shaped hyaline cartilaginous rings and fibromuscular membrane.
It extends from the lower border of cricoid cartilage (at C6 level) to lower border of T4 or upper border of T5 vertebra (T4-T5 disc space) where it bifurcates.
Its external diameter is about 2 cm in males and about 1.5 cm in females.
It has 16-20 cartilaginous rings.
The first tracheal ring is the broadest. The last ring at tracheal bifurcation shows carina, a triangular hoop-shaped process separating the bronchi, i.e.
Carina is a bifurcation of the trachea.
The trachea is lined by ciliated columnar epithelium.
It is supplied by the inferior thyroid artery and is drained by left brachiocephalic vein.
Sensory and motor supply to the trachea is provided by the parasympathetic system through vagi and recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Vasomotor supply is by sympathetic fibres through middle cervical ganglion along inferior thyroid arteries. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Autopsy of lung of an old man shows that the bronchi are lined by stratified squamous epithelium. What is this change
Select and explain.
A. Metaplasia, B. Dysplasia, C. Hyperplasia, D. Hypertrophy | A: Metaplasia | Answer: A: Metaplasia
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | How does hyperammonemia inhibit TCA cycle?
Select and explain.
A. By depleting alpha ketoglutarate, B. By depleting oxaloacetate, C. By increasing concentration of alpha ketoglutarate, D. By increasing concentration of oxaloacetate. | A: By depleting alpha ketoglutarate | Answer: A: By depleting alpha ketoglutarate
Explanation: Build up of cummonemia which occurs in urea cycle disorder or advanced liver disease, inhibits TCA cycle by depleting alpha ketoglutarate. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | True regarding neoplasms of the ovary are:a) Stromal invasion is commonly present in ovarian tumours of borderline malignancyb) Lymphocytic infiltration is characteristic to dysgerminomac) Presence of ascites and pleural effusion in Brenner tumour indicates poor prognosisd) Endometrioid carcinoma of the ovary may coexist with endometrial adenocarcinoma
Select and explain.
A. c, B. d, C. bd, D. ac | C: bd | Answer: C: bd
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Genital ulcer is/are caused by – a) HPVb) HSVc) HIVd) Treponema pallidum
Select and explain.
A. c, B. d, C. ab, D. bd | D: bd | Answer: D: bd
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: G.I.T, Subject name: Physiology | The most common cause of painful pericarditis is
Select and explain.
A. Viral, B. Tuberculous, C. Uraemic, D. All of these | A: Viral | Answer: A: Viral
Explanation: The cause of pericarditis is believed to be most often due to a viral infection. Other causes include bacterial infections such as tuberculosis, uremic pericarditis, following a hea attack, cancer, autoimmune disorders, and chest trauma Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Head & Neck, Subject name: Pathology | Most common site of ectopic salivary gland is?
Select and explain.
A. Cheek, B. Palate, C. Angle of mandible, D. Tongue | C: Angle of mandible | Answer: C: Angle of mandible
Explanation: Ans is 'c' i.e. Angle of mandible * An accessory salivary gland is ectopic salivary gland tissue with a salivary gland duct system. The most common location of accessory salivary gland tissue is an extra major salivary gland in front of the parotid gland.* Salivary gland heterotopia is where salivary gland acini cells are present in an abnormal location without any duct system. The most common location is the cervical lymph nodes.* Most common ectopic salivary gland tissue is Stafne bone cyst.* It presents as asymptomatic, clearly demarcated radiolucency of the angle of mouth, characteristically, below inferior dental neurovascular bundle. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | All of the following are reducing sugars except
Select and explain.
A. Glucose, B. Lactose, C. Maltose, D. Sucrose | D: Sucrose | Answer: D: Sucrose
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Disorders of Gastrointestinal System Including Diarrhea, Subject name: Pediatrics | An eight-year-old boy had abdominal pain, fever with bloody diarrhea for 18 months. His height is 100 cm and weight is 14.5 kg. Stool culture was negative for known entero-pathogens. The sigmoidoscopy was normal. During the same period child had an episode of renal colic and passed urinary gravel. The Mantoux test was 5 x 5 mm. The most probable diagnosis is:
Select and explain.
A. Ulcerative colitis, B. Crohn's disease, C. Intestinal tuberculosis, D. Strongyloidiasis | B: Crohn's disease | Answer: B: Crohn's disease
Explanation: The boy in question is obviously malnourished (Expected weight is 20-25 kg and expected height is 125-130 cm) A normal sigmoidoscopy rules out ulcerative colitis as it extends in a continuous fashion proximally from the rectum. A negative Mantoux test goes against active tuberculosis and a negative stool culture also rules out strongyloidiasis. Interpretation of Mantoux test: If the width of the induration is: >= 10 mm: Positive (tuberculin reactors) 6-9 mm: Equivocal/doubtful reaction <=5 mm: Negative reaction Hence, the obvious choice left is option '2', i.e. Crohn's disease. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | All are autosomal recessive EXCEPT: September 2004
Select and explain.
A. Sickle cell anemia, B. Phenylketonuria, C. Marfan's syndrome, D. Wilson's disease | C: Marfan's syndrome | Answer: C: Marfan's syndrome
Explanation: Ans. C i.e. Marfan's syndrome Marfan syndrome is a disorder of connective tissue, manifested principally by changes in the skeleton, eyes, and cardiovascular system. It is transmitted by autosomal dominant inheritance. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pediatrics | All the following drugs are used for Absence seizures except –
Select and explain.
A. Clonazepam, B. Phenytoin, C. Valproate, D. Ethosuximide | B: Phenytoin | Answer: B: Phenytoin
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Minimum thickness of calcium hydroxide required to protect near or actual pulp exposure is?
Select and explain.
A. 2-3 mm, B. 0.5-1mm, C. 3-4mm, D. 5mm | B: 0.5-1mm | Answer: B: 0.5-1mm
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Sexuality and intersexuality, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | A 17-year-old girl with amenorrhea, atrophied breast, hypoplastic uterus :
Select and explain.
A. Turner's syndrome, B. Gonadal dysgenesis, C. Androgen insensitivity syndrome, D. Klinefelter's syndrome | A: Turner's syndrome | Answer: A: Turner's syndrome
Explanation: Turner's syndrome Phenotype is female Karyotype is 45,XO Sho stature,webbed neck underdeveloped uterus and vagina ovaries lack graffian follicles breasts are not developed,axillary and pubic hair is scanty or absent SHAW'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,pg no:111,115th edition |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | All are fibrinolytic, except -
Select and explain.
A. Streptokinase, B. Urokinase, C. Alteplase, D. Epsilon amino caproic acid | D: Epsilon amino caproic acid | Answer: D: Epsilon amino caproic acid
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Epsilon amino caproic acid |