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This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | True about myasthenia gravis -
Select and explain.
A. Associated with thymomoa in 3/4 of cases, B. Incremental response seen with repetitive electric stimuli, C. Skeletal muscle function improve after rest, D. ↑ Aceytylcholine receptor | C: Skeletal muscle function improve after rest | Answer: C: Skeletal muscle function improve after rest
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | The impoant coreceptors for HIV to bind with CD4 receptors are:
Select and explain.
A. CCR4 and CXCR3, B. CCR5 and CXCR4, C. CCR4 and CXCR5, D. CCR4 and CXCR2 | B: CCR5 and CXCR4 | Answer: B: CCR5 and CXCR4
Explanation: The primary cellular receptor for HIV is CD4 (Helper subset of T cells). HIV has two major coreceptors: CCR5 and CXCR4 (for fusion and entry)ALSO KNOW:Kaposi's sarcoma cannot be explained completely by the immunodeficiency caused by HIV infection. Ref: Harrison, Edition-18, Page-1519. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Which malocclusion will not lead to straining of Lips?
Select and explain.
A. Class - II Div. 1, B. Class-II Div. 2, C. Bimaxillary protrusion, D. None | B: Class-II Div. 2 | Answer: B: Class-II Div. 2
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Pharynx, Subject name: ENT | All of the following are true regarding zenkers diveiculum except
Select and explain.
A. It is a false diveiculum, B. It occurs in children, C. It is a posterior pharyngeal pulsion diveiculum, D. M/C site for diveiculum is killians dehiscence | B: It occurs in children | Answer: B: It occurs in children
Explanation: PHARYNGEAL POUCH Also called hypopharyngeal diveiculum or Zenker's diveiculum, it is a pulsion diveiculum where pharyngeal mucosa herniates through the Killian's dehiscence--a weak area between two pas of the inferior constrictor. AETIOLOGY :- Exact cause is not known. It is probably due to spasm of cricopharyngeal sphincter or its incoordinated contractions during the act of deglutition. It is usually seen after 60 years of age. PATHOLOGY :- Herniation of pouch stas in the midline. It is at first behind the oesophagus and then comes to lie on its left. Mouth of the sac is wider than the opening of oesophagus and food preferentially enters the sac. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-274 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Microbiology | In donovanosis-
Select and explain.
A. Pseudolymphadenopathy, B. Penicillin is used for treatment, C. Painful ulcer, D. Suppurative lymphadenopathy | A: Pseudolymphadenopathy | Answer: A: Pseudolymphadenopathy
Explanation: Ans. is `a' i.e., Pseudolymphadenopathy Donovanosis Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis. C. granulomatis is ? - Gram negative - Encapsulated - Nonmotile - Intracellular It shares many morphologic and serologic characteristic (antigenic) and > 99% homology at the nucleotide level with Klebsiella. Clinical manifestations - IP --) 1-4 weeks - Begins as one or more subcutaneous nodules that erode through skin to produce clean, granulomatous, sharply defined, usually painless lesions. - The genitalia are involved in 90% of cases. - Genital swelling, paicularly of labia, is common. - In donovanosis, heaped-up granulomatous tissue may follow and subcutaneous extension to inguinal area may form "pseudo-buboes"; however, the absence of true lymphadenopathy is the hallmark of this infection. - Complications Pseudoelephantiasis, phimosis and paraphimosis. Diagnosis: - The preferred diagnostic method involves demonstration of typical intracellular Donovan bodies within large mononuclear cells visualized in smears prepared from lesions or biopsy specimens. - Stain used is wright - Giemsa Treatment: - Azithromycin (DOC) - Doxycycline (2'd choice) - Chloramphenicol |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Sensorimotor stage of cognitive development is
characterized by
Select and explain.
A. Egocentricism, B. Symbolic play, C. Animism, D. Conservation | B: Symbolic play | Answer: B: Symbolic play
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Anti-Neoplastic Agents, Subject name: Pharmacology | Which of the following drug is used in sickle cell anemia?
Select and explain.
A. Hydroxyurea, B. Carmustine, C. Paclitaxel, D. Bleomycin | A: Hydroxyurea | Answer: A: Hydroxyurea
Explanation: Ans. a. Hydroxyurea The only drug approved by US FDA for the treatment of sickle cell anemia is hydroxyurea.Hydroxyurea in Sickle Cell Anemia* The only drug approved by US FDA for the treatment of sickle cell anemia is hydroxyurea.* Hydroxyurea increases total and fetal hemoglobin in children with sickle cell disease.* The increase in fetal hemoglobin retards sickling of RBCs.* Hydroxyurea also reduces the level of circulating leucocytes. This decreases the adherence of neutrophils to the vascular endothelium in turn theses effects reduce the incidence of pain episodes and acute chest syndrome episodes. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Unknown | Human placenta is:
Select and explain.
A. Hemochorial, B. Endothen - esdothelima, C. Chorio - endothelial, D. Non-Discoidal | A: Hemochorial | Answer: A: Hemochorial
Explanation: Ans-A (Hemochorial) Ref: DC Dutta's Textbook of Obstetrics, 7th edn, pg 28Explanation:Human placentaStarts developing at 6 weeks and completed by 12 weeksHuman placenta is discoid, hemochorial, deciduateDevelopment of placentaFetal part - chorion frondosumMaternal part - deciduas hasalisCleavage of placenta following delivery occurs through deciduas spongiosumNormal weight - 500 gmsFunctional unit of placenta - chorionic villiUmbilical artery has 2 arteries and one veinNitabuch's membrane is absent in placenta accretaBlood flow in feto placental unit at term 500 ml/ minOxygen saturation inUmbilical vein -70-80 %Umbilical artery - 50 -60 %Intervillous space is filled with maternal bloodVolume of blood in mature placenta - 500 ml |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Psoriasis, Subject name: Dental | A 35 year old man taking steroids for a long time on withdrawal developed fever and generalised pustules all over his body, what can be possible cause?
Select and explain.
A. Drug eruption, B. Bacterial infection, C. Septicaemia, D. Pustular Psoriasis | D: Pustular Psoriasis | Answer: D: Pustular Psoriasis
Explanation: Pustular psoriasis develops on -1. Withdrawal of systemic coicosteroids2. Application of contact irritants like coal tar, dithranol |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | All of the following may be seen in patients of cardiac tamponade, except:
Select and explain.
A. Kussmaul's sign, B. Pulsus paradoxus, C. Electrical alternans, D. Right ventricular diastolic collapse on echocardiogram | A: Kussmaul's sign | Answer: A: Kussmaul's sign
Explanation: Kussmaul's sign is an increase rather than the normal decrease in CVP during inspiration, is most often caused by severe right-sided hea failure; it is a frequent finding in patients with constrictive pericarditis or right ventricular infarction. Kussmaul's sign is present in constrictive pericarditis and its is a clinical sign differentiating cardiac tamponade from constrictive pericarditis. Kussmaul's sign is a rare in cardiac tamponade. All other features mentioned above are associated with cardiac tamponade. So "Kussmaul's sign" is the single best answer of choice. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Pages 1415-17. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Cardiovascular system, Subject name: Physiology | Stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors causes:
Select and explain.
A. Bradycardia, B. Tachycardia, C. Either bradycardia or tachycardia, D. Neither bradycardia nor tachycardia | C: Either bradycardia or tachycardia | Answer: C: Either bradycardia or tachycardia
Explanation: Peripheral chemoreceptor in the carotid and aoic bodies can produce variable effects on hea rate- Direct Effect: Vagal stimulation- Bradycardia Indirect effect : Hypoxia- Peripheral chemoreceptor stimulation - Hyperventilation and increased catecholamine secretion - Tachycardia and increased cardiac output Chemoreceptor reflex Receptors Peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid and aoic bodies Central chemoreceptors in the medulla. Stimulus Decrease in PaO2 Increase in Pa CO2, H+ ion conc Afferent IX (sinus nerve of Hering) and X (Vagus N) Center for Reflex Medulla Efferent Sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons to hea vasculature and adrenal medulla. Response Direct effect: Bradycardia Indirect effect: Hyperventilation , tachycardia, vasoconstriction, increased cardiac output and increased BP. Ref: Ganong&; s Review of Medical Physiology 26th edition Pgno: 581, 582 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | A elderly female presented with history of progressive right-sided weakness and speech difficulty. She gives a history of a fall in her bathroom two months back. The most likely clinical diagnosis is :
Select and explain.
A. Progressive supranuclear palsy, B. Left cerebral tumor, C. Left sided stroke, D. Left chronic subdural haematoma | D: Left chronic subdural haematoma | Answer: D: Left chronic subdural haematoma
Explanation: Answer is D (Left chronic subdural haematoma) : Progressively increasing right sided focal neurological signs over a period of one month along with papilloedema suggest a diagnosis of an IntraCranial Space Occurring Lesion. (ICSOL). Given the history of head trauma in an elderly female chronic subdural haematoma is the diagnosis of choice. Chronic subdural haematoma : Chronic subdural haematoma is the common in conditions of cerebral atrophy notably old age and alcoholism. Minor trauma leads to a little insignificant bleeding in subdural space that goes unnoticed. As the blood breaks down over the next few weeks or months, fluids is drawn into subdural space because the breakdown products are hyperosmolol and membrane forms. This collection gradually enlarges and compress the brain producing focal neurological defecits mimicking tumor. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Skin | A person suffers from B27 associated reactive ahritis, urethritis and conjunctivitis. Which is most likely organism involved in this case?
Select and explain.
A. Borrelia burgdorferi, B. Ureaplasma urealyticum, C. Beta-hemolytic streptococci, D. Streptococcus bovis | B: Ureaplasma urealyticum | Answer: B: Ureaplasma urealyticum
Explanation: Agents responsible for Reiter's syndrome: Salmonella enteritidis S. typhimurium S. heidelberg Yersinia enterocolitica Y. pseudotuberculosis Campylobacter fetus Shigella flexneri Genitourinary pathogens (such as Chlamydia or Ureaplasma urealyticum) Ref: Suurmond D. (2009). Section 14. The Skin in Immune, Autoimmune, and Rheumatic Disorders. In D. Suurmond (Ed), Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology, 6e. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | Battles sign is extopic manifestation of?
Select and explain.
A. Anterior cranial fossa fracture, B. Middle cranial fossa fracture, C. Posterior cranial fossa fracture, D. Orbital fracture | B: Middle cranial fossa fracture | Answer: B: Middle cranial fossa fracture
Explanation: Ecchymosis over the mastoid procens following fracture of middle cranial fossa is called Battles sign. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Metabolism of lipid, Subject name: Biochemistry | True about conversion of 20C fatty acid conversion to prostaglandin synthase
Select and explain.
A. First PG synthesized is PGI I2, B. It is rate limiting enzyme, C. It convees PGI H2 to PGI E2, D. The primary prostaglandin is PG H2 | D: The primary prostaglandin is PG H2 | Answer: D: The primary prostaglandin is PG H2
Explanation: Biosynthesis of Prostaglandins Prostaglandins are derived from the PUFA, the three series being derived from the following fatty acids. 1 series (1 double bond) -from Linoleic acid 2 series (2 double bonds)-from Arachidonic acid 3 series (3 double bonds)-Eicosa Penta-enoic Naturally occurring PGs belong to the 2 series. i. PGs are not stored as such; the precursor fatty acids are stored in membrane as phospholipids. The arachidonic acid is released by the action of phospholipase A2 on phospholipids (Fig. 13.3). ii. Synthesis is catalyzed by Prostaglandin H synthase (PGHS). It contains two separate enzyme activities, cyclo-oxygenase, and peroxidase. iii. PGG2 and PGH2 are formed as intermediates during the synthesis of other PGs. Specific enzymes conve PGH2 to other prostaglandinsRef: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 164 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | According to Universal system the primary right central incisor is coded as:
Select and explain.
A. A, B. F, C. E, D. O | C: E | Answer: C: E
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Call - Exner bodies are seen in :
Select and explain.
A. Theca cell tumour, B. Fibromas, C. Granulosa cell tumour, D. None of the above | C: Granulosa cell tumour | Answer: C: Granulosa cell tumour
Explanation: Granulosa cell tumour |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | Muscle supplied by median nerve:
Select and explain.
A. Opponens pollicis, B. Abductor pollicis brevis, C. Flexor pollicis brevis, D. All | D: All | Answer: D: All
Explanation: A, B, C, i.e. Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis, & First lumbricals |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Physiology | Tetrodotoxin blocks
Select and explain.
A. yNa+ during action potential, B. yK+ during action potential, C. yNa+ during resting state, D. yK+ during resting state | A: yNa+ during action potential | Answer: A: yNa+ during action potential
Explanation: A i.e. y Na+ during action potentialInhibitors & toxinsSodium dependent glucose transpoer (SGLT or Na+ glucose co transpoer) is inhibited by phlorizinQ whereas, phloretin inhibits sodium (Na+) independent glucose transpoer (GLUT 2) in intestineQ.Fish neurotoxin tetrodotoxin (applied externally) block Na' channelsQ (esp early membrane voltage dependent Na' current; hence 'm' gates controlling Na' channels externally) where as enzyme pronase (applied internally) block voltage dependent inactivation of Na* current (hence 'h.' gates controlling Na' channels from inside).Tetraethyl ammonium or 4 aminopyridine block potassium channelQ (esp delyed voltage dependent increase in K* permeability and hence 'n' gate).Absorption of Hexose in intestineHexoses are rapidly and completely absorbed before the meal reach terminal ileumTranspo of most hexoses (glucose & galactose) is dependent on Na' ions in intestinal lumen; a high Na' concentration facilitates and a low concenteration inhibits sugar influx into the epithelial cells.This is because Na' & glucose share a same cotranspoer or sympo, the sodium dependent glucose transmpoer (SGLT), Na' glucose cntranspoer). These (SGLT 1 & 2) resemble glucose transpoers responsible for facilitated diffusion in that they cross cell membrane 12 times and have their - COOH & - NH2 terminals on cytoplasmic side of membrane. However , there is no homology to glucose transpoer (GLUT). SGLT- 1 is responsible for uptake of dietary glucose from gut where as SGLT-2 is responsible for glucose transpo out of renal tubules. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Indirect coombs test detect -
Select and explain.
A. Antibodies attached to RBC surface, B. Antigen in serum, C. Antibodies in the serum, D. Antigen attached to RBC surface | C: Antibodies in the serum | Answer: C: Antibodies in the serum
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Physiology | Active reabsorption of glucose occurs in the ?
Select and explain.
A. Distal tubule, B. Proximal tubule, C. Loop of henle, D. Collecting ducts | B: Proximal tubule | Answer: B: Proximal tubule
Explanation: B i.e. Proximal tubuleProximal convoluted tubule (early pa) reabsorbs almost all of glucose, amino acids, protein, lactate & inorganic phosphate and most (65%) of bicorbonate,Na+,11)0, K+ and CI Q. PCT is also an impoant site for secretion of organic acids and bases such as oxalate, urate, bile salts, H+ and catecholamines, along with toxins, drugs eg penicillin, salicylates and PAH. So its' a work horse of nephronQ. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: All India exam, Subject name: Anatomy | The antidiabetic drug with anorectic effect is
Select and explain.
A. Liraglutide, B. Gliclazide, C. Acarbose, D. Chlorpropamide | A: Liraglutide | Answer: A: Liraglutide
Explanation: Oral hypoglycemic agents Enhance insulin secretion Sulfonylureas ( K-ATP channel blockers )I - TolbutamideSafer in elderly & those prone to hypoglycemia, Controls postprandial hyperglycemia II - Glibenclamide, Glipizide, Gliclazide, GlimepiridePotent drugs with lower incidence of hypoglycemic attacks Meglitinide analogues Repaglinide, NateglinideStimulates insulin secretion & limits post prandial hypoglycaemiaGLP-1 receptor agonists Exenatide, Liraglutide Lowers post prandial hypoglycaemia , fasting blood glucose , HbA1c and body weight Produces anorectic effect DPP 4 inhibitors Sitagliptin, Vida gliptin, Saxagliptin, Alogliptin, LinagliptinBoosts postprandial insulin release, decreases glucagon secretion, lowers meal time & fasting blood glucose Overcome insulin resistanceBiguanide ( AMP-K activator )Metformin Suppresses hepatic gluconeogenesis, enhances insulin-mediated glucose uptake in skeletal muscle & fat, promotes peripheral glucose utilization Thiazolidinediones ( PPARg activator )Pioglitazone, Rosiglitazone, Troglitazone Suppresses hepatic gluconeogenesis, an activator of genes regulating fatty acid metabolism & lipogenesis in adipose tissue, lowers HbA1c and insulin levels Miscellaneous drugsa-glucosidase inhibitors Acarbose , Voglibose , Miglitol Reduces post prandial glycemia , lowers HbA1C levels Amylin analogue Pramlintide Delay gastric emptying, retard glucose absorption & promotes satiety Dopamine D2 receptor agonist Bromocriptine Suppresses glycemic peak, reduce body weight SGLT - 2 inhibitor Dapagliflozin, CanagliflozinProduces round the clock glucosuria, lowers blood glucose levels |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Hospital waste and disaster management, Occupational health, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | Most common mode of lead poisoning-
Select and explain.
A. Ingestion, B. Dermally, C. Inhalation, D. Through conjunctiva | C: Inhalation | Answer: C: Inhalation
Explanation: Mode.of absorption of lead is by inhalation, ingestion and through skin.Most cases of industrial lead poisoning is due to inhalation of fumes and dust of lead or its compounds.(Ref.PARK'S textbook of preventive and social medicine 21st edition page no.748) |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: FMGE 2019, Subject name: Pharmacology | Shoest acting coicosteroid he following is?
Select and explain.
A. Dexamethasone, B. Hydrocoisone, C. Triamcinolone, D. Deflazaco | B: Hydrocoisone | Answer: B: Hydrocoisone
Explanation: Sho acting steroids - Coisone Hydrocoisone Intermediate acting - Prednisone Prednisolone Triamcinolone Long acting - Dexamethasone Betamethasone Paramethasone |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: G.I.T., Subject name: Physiology | A patient who underwent extensive bowel resection is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for 1 month. Endoscopy done after one month reveals diffuse gastric mucosal atrophy. Which enzyme deficiencies are most likely responsible for gastric mucosal atrophy in this patient?
Select and explain.
A. Gastrin and ghrelin, B. Secretin and CCK, C. Gastrin and CCK, D. Gastrin and secretin | C: Gastrin and CCK | Answer: C: Gastrin and CCK
Explanation: Ans. (c) Gastrin and CCK(Ref: Yamada's Textbook of Gastroenterology,5th ed p.284)Gastrin and CCK deficiencies can cause Gastric mucosal atrophy |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: All India exam, Subject name: Anatomy | Oogonia at the time of bih, is present in which of the following stage of meiosis?
Select and explain.
A. Prophase 1, B. Metaphase 1, C. Anaphase 1, D. Telophase 1 | A: Prophase 1 | Answer: A: Prophase 1
Explanation: Oogenesis Near the time of bih, all primary oocytes have staed prophase of meiosis I, but instead of proceeding into metaphase, they enter the diplotene stage, a resting stage during prophase that is characterized by a lacy network of chromatin Primary oocytes remain in prophase and do not finish their first meiotic division before pubey is reached, apparently because of oocyte maturation inhibitor (OMI), a substance secreted by follicular cells. The total number of primary oocytes at bih is estimated to vary from 700,000 to 2 million. During childhood most oocytes become atretic; only approximately 400,000 are present by the beginning of pubey, and fewer than 500 will be ovulated. Some oocytes that reach maturity late in life have been dormant in the diplotene stage of the first meiotic division for 40 years or more before ovulation. Whether the diplotene stage is the most suitable phase to protect the oocyte against environmental influences is unknown. The fact that the risk of having children with chromosomal abnormalities increases with maternal age indicates that primary oocytes are vulnerable to damage as they age. (Refer: Langman's Medical Embryology, 9th Edition, Chapter. 1, Pg 21 - 22) |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | Compartment devoid of neurovascular bundle
Select and explain.
A. Anterior compartment of leg, B. Posterior deep compartment of leg, C. Posterior superficial compartment of leg, D. Lateral compartment of leg | C: Posterior superficial compartment of leg | Answer: C: Posterior superficial compartment of leg
Explanation: Posterior superficial compartment of leg is devoid of neurovascular bundle |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: General pathology, Subject name: Pathology | In amyloidosis Beta pleated sheet will be seen in-
Select and explain.
A. X-ray crystallography, B. Electron microscope, C. Spiral electron microscope, D. Congo red stain | A: X-ray crystallography | Answer: A: X-ray crystallography
Explanation: Beta pleated sheets in amyloidosis is seen by X- ray crystallography. Basic Pathology, Robbins. Page no.:156 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Metabolism of protein and amino acid, Subject name: Biochemistry | Enzyme involved in Variegate porphyria
Select and explain.
A. Ferrochelatase, B. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase, C. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase, D. ALA dehydratase | B: Protoporphyrinogen oxidase | Answer: B: Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
Explanation: Enzyme InvolvedType Major Signs and SymptomsResults of Laboratory TestsProtoporphyrinogen oxidaseVariegate porphyria (hepatic)Photosensitivity, abdominal pain,neuropsychiatric symptomsUrinary ALA, PBG, and coproporphyrinIII and fecal protoporphyrinIX increasedRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 31 Porphyrins & Bile Pigments |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | Size of paicle for aerosol therapy/respirable dust is?
Select and explain.
A. 0.5-1, B. 5-Jan, C. 10-May, D. 15-Oct | B: 5-Jan | Answer: B: 5-Jan
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1-5 o The two type of devices used for aerosol therapy are matered-dose inhalers and nebulizer. Both devices provide a range of paicle sizes that includes the desired 1-5 range. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | Rules followed amongst medical professionals which are mutual ?
Select and explain.
A. Medical etiquettes, B. Medical ethics, C. Privileged communication, D. Vicarious responsibility' | A: Medical etiquettes | Answer: A: Medical etiquettes
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e.,Medical etiquettes Medical etiquettesMedical etiquettes : It refers to existing customs of brotherhood among members of medical profession, i.e. couesy followed between members of medical profession, e.g. it is a custom not to charge another doctor or his close relatives. Medical ethicsThe earliest code of medical ethics was Hippocratic oath. It is modified by World Medical Association, and was named as `Declaration of Geneva'; it is followed by MCI as code of medical ethics. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Physiology | EEG rhythm recorded from the surface of the scalp during REM sleep -
Select and explain.
A. Alpha, B. Beta, C. Delta, D. Theta | B: Beta | Answer: B: Beta
Explanation: B i.e. Beta |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | The fastest acting schizonticidal drug among the following is:
Select and explain.
A. Artemether, B. Mefloquine, C. Chloroquine, D. Proguanil | A: Artemether | Answer: A: Artemether
Explanation: Artemether-lumefantrine
Lumefantrine is an orally active, high efficacy, long-acting erythrocytic schizontocide, related chemically and in mechanism of action to halofantrine and MQ. Like the other schizontocides, vivax hypnozoites are not affected. Lumefantrine is highly lipophilic; absorption starts after 2 hours of ingestion and peaks at 6-8 hours. Antimalarial action is slower than CQ. Plasma protein binding is 99%, and it is metabolized predominantly by CYP3A4. Terminal t½ is 2- 3 days, which is prolonged to 4 -6 days in malaria patients.
Lumefantrine is used only in combination with artemether, as FDC tablets. The two components protect each other from plasmodial resistance.
As such, no clinically relevant resistance has developed so far. Clinical efficacy is high achieving 95- 99% cure rate. Artemether-lumefantrine is active even in multidrug resistant Plasmodium falciparum areas, including MQ-resistant.
Key Concept:
Artemisinin derivatives like dihydroartemisinin, arteether and artemether, etc., are fastest acting antimalarial drugs.
Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 889
|
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Apoptosis, Subject name: Pathology | All of the following trigger the intrinsic pathway of programmed cell death, except:
Select and explain.
A. Withdrawal of growth factor stimulus, B. Radiation injury, C. Activation of Fas receptor by FasL, D. Intracellular protein misfolding | C: Activation of Fas receptor by FasL | Answer: C: Activation of Fas receptor by FasL
Explanation: Apoptosis is also referred to as 'programmed cell death'. Mitochondrial (Intrinsic) pathway of apoptosis is triggered due to cellular injury caused by: Growth factor withdrawal DNA damage (by radiation, toxins, free radicals) Protein misfolding (ER stress) Death receptor (Extrinsic) pathway of apoptosis is triggered by activation of Fas and TNF receptors. The ligand for Fas receptor is called Fas ligand (FasL). FasL is expressed on T cells that recognize self antigens and on some CTLs that kill virus-infected and tumor cells. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Nose and paranasal sinuses, Subject name: ENT | Merciful anosmia is seen in
Select and explain.
A. Nasal polyp, B. Atrophic rhinitis, C. Rhinosporidiosis, D. Rhinoscleroma | B: Atrophic rhinitis | Answer: B: Atrophic rhinitis
Explanation: Merciful anosmia is seen in atrophic rhinitis(Ozaena). There is foul smell from the nose, but the patient himself is unaware of smell due to marked anosmia due to degenerative changes Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 173. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Aerial disorders, Subject name: Surgery | Adson's test is used for determining vascular insufficiency. It is useful in:-
Select and explain.
A. Peripheral vascular disease, B. Varicose veins, C. Cervical rib, D. AV fistula | C: Cervical rib | Answer: C: Cervical rib
Explanation: Adson's test is used for determining vascular insufficiency due to Cervical rib. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Upper limb, Subject name: Anatomy | The pectoralis major is classifies as a
Select and explain.
A. Spiral Muscle, B. Cruciate muscle, C. Fusiform muscle, D. Bipennate Muscle | A: Spiral Muscle | Answer: A: Spiral Muscle
Explanation: Pectoralis major muscle is typically classified as a spiral Muscle. Muscles with spiral or twisted fasciculi are found in Trapezius, Pectoralis major, Latissimus dorsi, and supinator. Spiral or Twisted: The muscle fibers undergo a twist of approximately 180 degrees between their medial and lateral attachement. Spiral or Twisted Muscle: Pectoralis major Latissimus dorsi Trapezius Supinator Some skeletal muscles may be classified into more than one category. Pectoralis Major muscle has been classified both as convergent (or Triangular muscle) and Spiral Muscle in different textbooks. Note that Pectoralis major has been classified as &;Spiral &; in Gray&;s text and hence this has been selected as the single best answer of choice for this question. Convergent may be selected as the correct answer if spiral is not provided amongst the options. Ref: Gray&;s anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 113 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Enzymes, Subject name: Biochemistry | Non-vitamin coenzyme is
Select and explain.
A. Lipoic acid, B. CoA, C. S-adenosyl methionine, D. Niacin | A: Lipoic acid | Answer: A: Lipoic acid
Explanation: Vitamins are organic molecules that function in a wide variety of capacities within the body. The most prominent function of the vitamins is to serve as cofactors (co-enzymes) for enzymatic reactions. The distinguishing feature of the vitamins is that they generally cannot be synthesized by mammalian cells and, therefore, must be supplied in the diet. The vitamins are of two distinct types, water soluble and fat soluble Alpha-lipoic acid, LA, (chemical name: 1,2-dithiolane-3-pentanoic acid; also known as thioctic acid), is a naturally occurring dithiol compound synthesized enzymatically in the mitochondrion from the medium-chain fatty acid octanoic acid. Because LA can be synthesized in the body it is not technically considered a vitamin but because of its vital role in overall cellular metabolism, it is considered as an impoant, but not necessary, dietary supplement. Given that LA is a necessary cofactor for mitochondrial a-ketoacid dehydrogenases, it thus serves a critical role in mitochondrial energy metabolism. In addition to de novo synthesis, LA is also absorbed intact from dietary sources, and it transiently accumulates in many tissues |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | Fondaparinux is an anticoagulant that acts by inhibiting
Select and explain.
A. Factor Xa more than factor II, B. Both factor Xa and factor II equally, C. Only factor Xa, D. Only factor II | C: Only factor Xa | Answer: C: Only factor Xa
Explanation: Fondaparinux is a synthetic congener of Heparin containing only active pentasaccharide unit and inhibits only Xa. It doesn't inhibit thrombin (factor II a). |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Haematology, Subject name: Pathology | CD-10 is seen in-
Select and explain.
A. ALL, B. CLL, C. HCL, D. CML | A: ALL | Answer: A: ALL
Explanation: In acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, immunophenotyping pre B cell type: typically positive for pan-B cell markers CD19,CD10,CD9a. Reference textbook of Pathology 7th edition author Harsha Mohan page number 354 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Cerebrovascular Diseases, Subject name: Surgery | All of the following are true about Berry aneurysm except:
Select and explain.
A. Most common type of intracranial aneurysm, B. Most common site is anterior communicating aery-anterior cerebral junction, C. Rupture of aneurysm usually occurs at the apex or dome, D. Surgical clipping is preferred over endovascular coil occlusion | D: Surgical clipping is preferred over endovascular coil occlusion | Answer: D: Surgical clipping is preferred over endovascular coil occlusion
Explanation: Berry aneurysm Most common type of intracranial aneurysm Most common site is anterior communicating aery-anterior cerebral junction in Circle of Willis Rupture of aneurysm usually occurs at the apex or dome Endovascular coil occlusion is preferred over Surgical clipping |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | Lymphatics from the spongy urethra drain into which of the following lymph nodes:
Select and explain.
A. Sacral nodes, B. Deep inguinal nodes, C. Internal inguinal nodes, D. Superficial inguinal nodes | B: Deep inguinal nodes | Answer: B: Deep inguinal nodes
Explanation: Lymphatics from glans penis, prostatic urethra, spongy urethra and superficial inguinal nodes drains into deep inguinal lymph nodes. Ref: Grant's Atlas of Anatomy By A M R Agur, 13th Edition, Page 233 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Radiology | X-rays findings of Fibrous Dysplasia is:
Select and explain.
A. Ground glass density, B. Calcifications, C. Coical thickening, D. Bony expansion | A: Ground glass density | Answer: A: Ground glass density
Explanation: Ground glass density |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli), Subject name: Microbiology | Pigbel is caused by:
Select and explain.
A. Echinococcus, B. T. saginata, C. Clostridium perfringens, D. Clostridium tetani | C: Clostridium perfringens | Answer: C: Clostridium perfringens
Explanation: Pigbel is caused by by Clostridium perfringens. C. perfringens produces clinical syndromes as follows: a) Necrotizing enteritis/Pigbel Due to contaminated meat products. Incubation Period- 8-24 hrs. Involves Heat labile enterotoxin but spores are heat resistant. (b) Food poisoning (c) Soft tissue infections (d) Septicemia NOTE Clostridium perfringens causes stormy fermentation of lactose in litmus milk |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | All of the following are Preleukemic conditions, Except:
Select and explain.
A. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria (PNH), B. Paroxysmal Cold Haemoglobinuria (PCH), C. Myelodysplasia, D. Aplastic anemia | B: Paroxysmal Cold Haemoglobinuria (PCH) | Answer: B: Paroxysmal Cold Haemoglobinuria (PCH)
Explanation: Answer is B (Paroxysmal Cold Haemoglobinuria (PCH)) Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH) is a benign self-limiting autoimmune hemolytic anemia. PCH does not undergo leukemic transformation and is hence not considered a Preleukemic condition. Recovery is the rule in Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria may be considered a Preleukemic condition PNH may evolve into Aplastic anemia and PNH may manifest itself in patients who previously have Aplastic Anemia. Rarely (estimated 1-2% (Ian cases) PNH may terminate in Acute Myeloid Leukemia'. - Harrison 18th/883 Myelodysplasia (Myelodysplastic Syndrome) is a Preleukemic condition Myelodysplastia is a clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder leading to impaired cell proliferation and differentiation Cvtogenetic abnormalities are found in approximately one half of patients and some of the same specific lesions are also seen in frank leukemia. The type and number of cytogenetic abnormalities strongly correlate with the probability of leukemic transformation and survival' Aplastic Anemia may be considered a Preleukemic condition `Recent studies have shown that long term survivors of acquired aplastic anemia may be at high risk of subsequent malignant diseases or late clonal hematological diseases often years after successful immunosuppressive therapy. One Hypothesis has postulated that aplastic anemia is a Preleukemic condition'. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Antepartum Haemorrhage, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Carcinoma cervix presents with:
Select and explain.
A. Postcoital bleed, B. Abnormal vaginal bleed, C. Purulent discharge per vaginam, D. All of the above | D: All of the above | Answer: D: All of the above
Explanation: Ans. D. All of the aboveCarcinoma cervix has a bimodal peak one at 30-35 yrs and a second peak at 50-55 yrs. Presentation is typically abnormal vaginal bleeding -- in reproductive age group with metrorrhagia and in postmenopausal women with postmenopausal bleeding. There can be a cervical growth which can lead to postcoital bleeding. It undergoes necrosis then there can be purulent discharge per vaginam. Sometimes cancer cervix can present with VVF and with also with features of uremia. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Psychiatry | Delirium tremens is characterized by confusion associated with:
Select and explain.
A. Autonomic hyperactivity and tremors, B. Features of intoxication due to alcohol, C. Sixth nerve palsy, D. Karsakoff psychosis | A: Autonomic hyperactivity and tremors | Answer: A: Autonomic hyperactivity and tremors
Explanation: A i.e. Autonomic Hyperactivity & tremors |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | H pylori -
Select and explain.
A. Gram - ye nonflagellate spiral organism, B. Obligate parasite on gastric mucosa, C. Does not infect duodenal mucosa, D. Antibiotics not effective | B: Obligate parasite on gastric mucosa | Answer: B: Obligate parasite on gastric mucosa
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e. Obligate parasite on gastric mucosa H. pylori, though initially infects the gastric mucosa only, may later on infect the duodenal mucosa. the process is as follows : Infection of gastric mucosa leads to hypergastrinemia and acid hypersecretion. Acid hypersecretion leads to metaplasia in the duodenal mucosa. "This duodenal metaplasia allows H. pylori to colonize the duodenal mucosa and in these patients, the risk of developing a duodenal ulcer increases 50 fold" - Schwaz |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | The bowel can get strangulated in all of the following space except -
Select and explain.
A. Rectouterine pouch, B. lleocolic recess, C. Paraduodenal recess, D. Omental bursa | A: Rectouterine pouch | Answer: A: Rectouterine pouch
Explanation: Omental bursa, Paraduodenal recess and ileocolic recess are Peritoneal recesses.
Peritoneal recesses
These are small pockets of the peritoneal cavity enclosed by small, inconstant folds of the peritoneum. These are best observed in fetuses and are mostly obliterated in adults.
Sometimes they persist to form potential sites for an internal hernia and strangulation.
These are :
A) Lesser sac or omental bursa
B) Duodenal recesses
Superior duodenal recess
Inferior duodenal recess
Para duodenal recess
Retroduodenal recess
Duodenojejunal (or mesocolic) recess
Mesenterico-parietal fossa (of Waldeyer)
Superior ileocaecal (or ileocolic) recess)
Inferior ileocaecal (or ileocolic) recess)
Retrocaecal recess
C) Caecal fossa
D) Intersigmoid recess |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Embrasure clasp are usually used in cases of
Select and explain.
A. Class I cases with modifications, B. Class II cases with modifications, C. Class III cases without modifications, D. All of the above | C: Class III cases without modifications | Answer: C: Class III cases without modifications
Explanation: In the fabrication of an unmodified Class II or Class III partial denture, there are no edentulous spaces on the opposite side of the arch to aid in clasping. Mechanically, this is a disadvantage. However, when the teeth are sound and retentive areas are available or when multiple restorations are justified, clasping can be accomplished by means of an embrasure clasp. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: C.V.S., Subject name: Medicine | Several of the older patients in your practice intend to pursue exercise programs. They have no cardiac symptoms, but some do have vascular risk factors such as diabetes or hypertension. In these patients, which of the following is true about exercise electrocardiography?
Select and explain.
A. it is an invasive procedure, B. it is contraindicated in patients over 65 years of age, C. it detects latent disease, D. it has a morbidity of approximately 5% | C: it detects latent disease | Answer: C: it detects latent disease
Explanation: Exercise electrocardiography represents an increasingly popular noninvasive method for early detection of latent ischemic heart disease. As with other diagnostic tests, the exercise ECG is of most clinical value when the pretest probability of disease is moderate (i.e., 30-70%). In men over 40 and women over 50 who plan to start vigorous exercise, use of exercise ECG is possibly, but not definitely, supported by the evidence (class IIb). |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | True regarding PPH
Select and explain.
A. Type B lynch suture used, B. With new advances both atonic and traumatic PPH can be reduced, C. More common in multipara and Associated with polyhydramnios both, D. All or the above | D: All or the above | Answer: D: All or the above
Explanation: Ans. is a, b and c i.e. Type B lynch suture used; With new advances both atonic and traumatic PPH can be reduced; More common in multipara; and Associated with polyhydramnios PPH is more common in multipara due to laxed abdomen and associated factors like adherent placenta and anemia . Overdistension of uterus as in multiple pregnancy, hydraminos and large baby also lead to PPH . Incidence of atonic and traumatic PPH can be reduced with new advances or rather by intelligent anticipation, skilled supervision, prompt detection and effective institution of therapy. B lynch suture are used for management of PPH . Mifepristone is not used in the management of PPH . |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Ophthalmology | A 60–year old diabetic patient has an uneventful phacoemulsification with IOL implantation. He presented with pain, diminished vision, redness, watering and a greyish yellow pupillary reflex on the third postoperative day. Examination revealed circumcorneal congestion, aqueous cells 4+, hypopyon in the anterior chamber with posterior synechiae and retrolental flare. The most likely diagnosis is –
Select and explain.
A. Keratitis, B. Glaucoma, C. Endophthalmitis, D. Postoperative cyclitis | C: Endophthalmitis | Answer: C: Endophthalmitis
Explanation: Painful red eye with diminution of vision along with evidence of aqueous flare, hypopyon and loss of normal red reflex, three days after cataract surgery suggests a diagnosis of Acute Postoperative Endophthalmitis. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Blood, Subject name: Pathology | vWF is used as a marker for
Select and explain.
A. Angiosarcoma, B. Polycythemia vera, C. Leukemia, D. Option not recalled | A: Angiosarcoma | Answer: A: Angiosarcoma
Explanation: Ans. A. AngiosarcomaExplanationThe vWF is the least sensitive of the vascular markers and is positive in 50% to 75% of vascular tumors.von Willebrand factor (vWF):It is a glycoprotein produced uniquely by endothelial cells and megakaryocytes, is routinely used to identify vessels in tissue sections.Vessel density in tumor specimens, as determined by immuno-histochemical staining for vWF or other endothelial cell markers, is a negative prognostic factor for many solid tumors.vWF is heterogeneously distributed throughout the vasculature, transcriptional control in response to the tissue microenvironment being responsible for local variations in endothelial cell levels of vWF.Fibroblast growth factor-2 and vascular endothelial growth factor, potent angiogenesis inducers expressed in a variety of tumors, up-regulate expression of vWF mRNA and protein in cultured endothelial cells with a synergistic effect.Measurement of vWF mRNA in tumors detect activated endothelium or angiogenesis. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: All India exam, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | An ectopic pregnancy is shed as
Select and explain.
A. Decidua vera, B. Decidua basalis, C. Decidua capsularis, D. Decidua rubra | A: Decidua vera | Answer: A: Decidua vera
Explanation: The endometrial lining of the uterus is called decidua during pregnancy, If there is feilization and pregnancy occurs, the decidua differentiated intoDecidua basalis - becomes the maternal poion of the placentaDecidua - capsularis - the thin layer covering the ovumDecidua vera or parietalis - which is the rest of the decidua lining the uterine cavity outside the site of implantation. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Environment and health, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | A type of teiary waste water treatment process is -
Select and explain.
A. Reverse osmosis, B. Sedimentation, C. Both, D. Neither | D: Neither | Answer: D: Neither
Explanation: Sewage treatment Primary treatment : Physical treatment to remove solids (from the liquid) Secondary treatment : Bilogical treatment brought about by aerobic and anaerobic bacteria Teiary treatment : Improving fuher the quality of effluent (advanced waste treatment process), sludge (stabilisation and dewatering), assist sedimentation and sludge treatment (chemical treatment by the addition of coagulants) Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 800 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | Pseudomyxoma peritonei is seen with -
Select and explain.
A. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma ovary, B. Carcinoid appendix, C. Endometrial carcinoma, D. Ileal carcinoid | A: Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma ovary | Answer: A: Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma ovary
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | How many days took to form 1mm layer of enamel:
Select and explain.
A. 90 days., B. 140 days., C. 240 days., D. 180 days. | C: 240 days. | Answer: C: 240 days.
Explanation: Mean of daily rate of enamel formation – 3.5µm/day to 4µm/day
So to form 1mm thickness total approximately 240 days needed. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Hypersensitivity Reactions: Immune-Mediated Injury, Subject name: Pathology | Asthma is which type of hypersensitivity?
Select and explain.
A. Type -1 hypersensitivity, B. Type -2 hypersensitivity, C. Type -3 hypersensitivity, D. Type -4 hypersensitivity | A: Type -1 hypersensitivity | Answer: A: Type -1 hypersensitivity
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Type -1 hypersensitivity HypersensitivityType I (IgE mediated)Type II (IgG IgM and complement mediated)o Eczemao Blood transfusion reactionso Hay fevero Erythroblastosis fetaliso Asthmao Autoimmune hemolytic anemia or thrombocytopenia or agmulocytosiso Atopyo Pemphigus vulgariso Urticariao Good pasture syndromeo Anaphylactic shocko Bullous pemphigoido Acute dermatitiso Pernicious anemiao Theobald smith phenomenono Acute rheumatic fevero Prausnitz Kusnter (PK) reactiono Diabetes mellituso Casonistesto Graves diseaseo Schultz-Dale phenomenono Myasthenia gravisType III (IgG IeM. complement and leucocyte mediated)Tvpe IV (Cell mediated)o Local-Arthus reactiono Tuberculin testo Systemic-serum sicknesso Lepromin testo Schick testo Sarcoidosiso Polyarteritis nodosa (PANo Tuberculosiso Rheumatoid arthritiso Contact dermatitiso SLEo Granulomatous inflammationo Acute viral hepatitiso Type I lepra reactiono Penicillamine toxicityo Patch testo Hyperacute graft rejectiono Temporal arteritiso Type 2 lepra reaction (ENL)o Jones mote reaction (cutaneous basophilic HSN)o Hypersensitivity pneumonitiso Graft rejectiono R.Ao Fairleys testo Infective endocarditiso Frie's testo Henoch schonlein purpura o Glomerulonephritis |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Airway, Subject name: Anaesthesia | This is which Endotracheal tube:-
Select and explain.
A. Flexometallic tube, B. Laser tube, C. RAE tube, D. Double lumen tube | B: Laser tube | Answer: B: Laser tube
Explanation: LASER TUBE USED FOR LASER SURGERY Laser Resistant Endotracheal Tubes The most frequent laser related complication is airway fire. Laser Resistant ETTs are used to prevent airway fires during laser surgery of the airway. Initially, fires are located on surface of ETT and cause thermal injury to tissues. If the fire burns through to interior of ETT, O2 and positive pressure ventilation create a blow torch effect, blowing heat and toxic products down into lung. Cuff puncture allowing O2 enriched atmosphere can also increase chance of fire after laser burst. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Indian Legal system, Legal sections & Cou procedures, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | Oral evidence is more impoant than written testimony as:
Select and explain.
A. Oral evidence cannot be cross-examined, B. Oral evidence can be cross-examined, C. Documentary evidence requires no proof, D. None | B: Oral evidence can be cross-examined | Answer: B: Oral evidence can be cross-examined
Explanation: Oral evidence is more superior to documentary evidence, as the witness can be cross examined. Doctor's repo is accepted only when he comes and deposes oral evidence in the cou ( S. 45 IEA). Exceptions to oral evidence: Dying declaration. Expe opinion given in a book or treatise. Evidence of doctor recorded in a lower Cou. Evidence by witness in a previous judicial proceedings. Repos of chemical examiner, explosives expe, fingerprint expe, serologist etc. Public records like death, bih ceificate. Hospital records |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: FMGE 2019, Subject name: Pathology | Most common anterior mediastinal tumour?
Select and explain.
A. Thymoma, B. Neurofibroma, C. Pericardial cyst, D. Bronchogenic cyst | A: Thymoma | Answer: A: Thymoma
Explanation: The designation "thymoma" is restricted to tumors of thymic epithelial cells. Such tumors typically also contain benign immature T cells. The tumors usually occur in adults older than 40 years of age; thymomas are rare in children. Males and females are affected equally. Most arise in the anterior superior mediastinum, but sometimes they occur in the neck, thyroid, pulmonary hilus, or elsewhere. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | Tumor suppressor gene is not involved in ?
Select and explain.
A. Breast cancers, B. Neurofibromatosis, C. Multiple endocrine neoplasia, D. Retinoblastoma | C: Multiple endocrine neoplasia | Answer: C: Multiple endocrine neoplasia
Explanation: o Multiple endocrine neoplasia involves RET protooncogene (not tumor suppressor gene). |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Poisoning, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | A person was found dead with bluish green frothy discharge at the angle of mouth and nostrils. What is the diagnosis?
Select and explain.
A. Arsenic poisoning, B. Copper poisoning, C. Mercury poisoning, D. Lead poisoning | B: Copper poisoning | Answer: B: Copper poisoning
Explanation: Clinical Features Acute Poisoning Ingestion: * Metallic taste,* Increased salivation * Colicky abdominal pain * Nausea and vomiting. Vomitus is bluish or greenish in color * Diarrhea * Myalgia * Pancreatitis * Methemoglobinemia * Hemolysis * Jaundice * Oliguria and renal failure * Convulsions * Delirium * Coma. Inhalation of Copper Fumes or Dust Causes * Respiratory tract irritation * Cough * Conjunctivitis * Metal fume fever. Chronic Poisoning * Abdominal pain * Greenish line on dental margins of gum (Clapton's line) * Vineyard Sprayer's lung disease: Copper sulphate is used as an insecticide spray in vineyards. During spraying, chronic inhalation of copper sulphate causes this disease. * Greenish hair discolouration * Wilson's disease. REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION;PAGE NO 309 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Misc., Subject name: Microbiology | Near double stranded DNA among the following
Select and explain.
A. Hepatitis A, B. Hepatitis B, C. Hepatitis C, D. Hepatitis D | B: Hepatitis B | Answer: B: Hepatitis B
Explanation: (B) Hepatitis B # Genome of HBV is made of circular DNA, but it is unusual because the DNA is not fully double-stranded.> One end of the full length strand is linked to the viral DNA polymerase.> The genome is 3020-3320 nucleotides long. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | Voyeurism is punished under
Select and explain.
A. 354 A IPC, B. 354 B IPC, C. 354 C IPC, D. 354 D IPC | C: 354 C IPC | Answer: C: 354 C IPC
Explanation: Refer the byte "Legal sections". |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Metabolism of nucleic acids, Subject name: Biochemistry | Which of the following enzymes unwind DNA?
Select and explain.
A. Ligase, B. DNA primase, C. Helicase, D. DNA polymerase | C: Helicase | Answer: C: Helicase
Explanation: Helicases are enzymes that bind and may even remodel nucleic acid or nucleic acid-protein complexes. There are DNA and RNA helicases. DNA helicases are essential during DNA replication because they separate double-stranded DNA into single strands allowing each strand to be copied Ref-Sathyanarayana 4/e p401 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: FMGE 2018, Subject name: Ophthalmology | NOT a feature of trachoma:
Select and explain.
A. Corneal opacity, B. Chalazion, C. Entropion, D. Herbe's pits | B: Chalazion | Answer: B: Chalazion
Explanation: Clinical features of trachoma - Lacrimation Photophobia Red eyes Hall mark - Sago grain follicles Herbe's pits seen Arlt's line on upper palpebral conjunctiva seen - sub conjunctival line of fibrosis Arlt's triangle seen in anterior uveitis - lower 1.3rd of the corneal endothelium where Keratic Precipitates settle due to the normal aqueous flow dynamics Pannus seen (nonspecific sign) Chalazion are not associated with trachoma- chronic inflammatory granuloma of the meibomian gland Seen in people with Oily skin Ocular rosacea |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Initial Care of the Burn Patient, Subject name: Surgery | All are given for management of burns EXCEPT?
Select and explain.
A. Hypotonic solutions, B. Albumin, C. 25% dextrose, D. Hartmann solution/ATLS | A: Hypotonic solutions | Answer: A: Hypotonic solutions
Explanation: Ans. (a) Hypotonic solutionsRef: Sabiston 19th ed. /530-33 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anaesthesia | Most common site of Curling's ulcer
Select and explain.
A. Ileum, B. Stomach, C. Duodenum, D. Esophagus | C: Duodenum | Answer: C: Duodenum
Explanation: Duodenum [Ref Robbins 7/e p819; Curling's ulcer is acute peptic ulcer of the duodenum described in 1842 by Curling as a complication of burns. Cushing's ulcer is acute peptic ulcer of stomach, duodenum and esophagus seen in intracranial injury, operations or tumor. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | Parts of some human skeletal remains are brought to you. The pelvis is complete, yet the individual bones of the pelvis, the ilium, ischium, and pubis have just staed to fuse together. The subpubic angle you estimate at 60deg and the pelvic brim has a distinctive hea shaped appeareance. On the basis of this information, you guess the remains are of which of the following?
Select and explain.
A. 3-year-old female, B. 4-year-old male, C. 14-year-old male, D. 30-year-old female | C: 14-year-old male | Answer: C: 14-year-old male
Explanation: Because the sub- pubic angle is about 60deg and the pelvic brim is hea shaped, you are look ing at a male. The bones of the pelvis arise from three different centers of ossification and generally fuse together at about pubey through the twenty-third year, thus you know you have to be looking at a 14-year-old male, not a 3-year-old or an 80-year- old male. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Nodular glomerulosclerosis is pathognomic for: September 2009
Select and explain.
A. Antiphospholipid syndrome, B. Goodpasture's syndrome, C. Renal amyloidosis, D. Diabetic nephropathy | D: Diabetic nephropathy | Answer: D: Diabetic nephropathy
Explanation: Ans. D: Diabetic nephropathy The constellation of renal changes attributed to Diabetes mellitus are- Armanni-Ebstein lesion, aerionephrosclerosis, aeriolonephrosclerosis, chronic interstitial nephritis, diabetic glomerulosclerosis, fatty changes in renal tubules, glomerulonephritis, Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease--focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis, nephrotic syndrome, papillary necrosis, and pyelonephritis. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | Fluid levels are not visible in -
Select and explain.
A. Meconeum ileus, B. Intussusception, C. Colon pouch, D. Duodenal obstruction | A: Meconeum ileus | Answer: A: Meconeum ileus
Explanation: Answer is 'a' i.e. Meconeum ileus In meconium ileus meconium is so thick that it is unable to form air-fluid level desptie complete small intestinal obstruction (Note the multiple air-fluid level is a feature of mechanical small bowel obstruction & paralytic ileus). |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Miscellaneous, Subject name: Pediatrics | A neonate with doughy soft lump in neck causing distortion of face and audible grunt. Diagnosis is:
Select and explain.
A. Cystic hygroma, B. Brachial cyst, C. Sternocleidomastoid Tumor, D. Birth injury | A: Cystic hygroma | Answer: A: Cystic hygroma
Explanation: Ans. (a) Cystic hygroma.* Cystic hygroma is a form of Lymphangioma caused by benign aberrant development of lymphatics and presents at birth with airway obstruction.* Imaging with USG, CT scan or MRI can identify the extent of lesion and surgery is required. (EXIT Procedure). Doxycycline, ethanol and sildenafil are Sclerosants and sclerotherapy can be done.* Sternocleidomastoid tumor is seen after a traumatic birth and leads to lump in neck with torticollis.* Brachial cyst is small and located on anterior border of sternocleidomastoid and does not cause respiratory compromise.Image source. style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; color: rgba(0, 0, 0, 1); font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0"> |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | In reflux nephropathy, glomerular lesion is-
Select and explain.
A. Focal GN., B. Membranous G.N., C. Membrano proliferative G.N., D. Minimal change disease | A: Focal GN. | Answer: A: Focal GN.
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | Minimum antenatal visit as per MCH is ?
Select and explain.
A. 1, B. 2, C. 3, D. 4 | D: 4 | Answer: D: 4
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., 4 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Spleen, Subject name: Surgery | What is the treatment of Choice for Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Select and explain.
A. Blood transfusion, B. Steroids, C. IV immunoglobin, D. Splenectomy | A: Blood transfusion | Answer: A: Blood transfusion
Explanation: Ans. (a) SteroidsRef: Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition page 724Medical Treatment of ITP* The treatment of choice is medical- oral prednisolone 1mg/kgproduces dramatic response in 50-70% cases.* Intravenous immunoglobin is indicated for internal bleeding.Refractory ITP* Failure of initial therapy mentioned above.* Rituximab given IV* Thromboplastin Receptor antagonists - Eltrombopag and RomiplostimSplenectomy* Most common indication for elective splenectomy* For patients with low platelet count should have platelets available at surgery but should be infused only after ligating the pedicle.* Should not be given preoperatively |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Normal value of tear film break-up time
Select and explain.
A. 5-10 seconds, B. 10-15 seconds, C. 15-30 seconds, D. > 35 seconds | C: 15-30 seconds | Answer: C: 15-30 seconds
Explanation: Tear Film break-up time:
It is the interval between a complete blink and appearance of first randomly disributed dry spot on the cornea.
Normal value - 15-35 seconds. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Psychiatry | Not a diagnostic/defining criteria for amnestic disorder
Select and explain.
A. Visual hallucination, B. Transient delusion, C. Impaired concentration/attention, D. All | D: All | Answer: D: All
Explanation: A i.e. Visual hallucination; B i.e. Transient delusion; C i.e. Impaired concentration/attention For diagnosis DSM IV requires Development of memory impairment as manifested by impaired ability to learn new information or the inability to recall previously learned informationQ. Memory disturbance causes significant impairment in social & occupation functioning & represents a significant decline from a previous level of functioning. Memory disturbance does not occur exclusively during the course of a delirium & dementia. May be d/t general medical condition (including trauma) or substance induced (alcohol, hypnotic, sedative etc) . ICD-10 criteria for organic amnesic syndrome A. Memory impairment, manifest in both Defect in recent memory (impaired learning of new material i.e. antegrade amnesia)Q. Reduced ability to recall past experiences (retrograde amnesia)Q. B. Absence of (or there is no) Defect in immediate recall (tested by digit span) Clouding of consciousness & disturbance of attentionQ (delirium) Global intellectual decline (dementia)Q C. Objective evidence (history, examination or lab test) of an insult to or disease of brain especially involving b/I diencephalic & medial temporal structures (but other than alcoholic encephalopathy) . * Confabulation, emotional change (apathy & lack of initiative) & lackof insight are addition pointers to diagnosis but are not invariably present. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute inflammation, except?
Select and explain.
A. Exudation, B. Granuloma formation, C. Vasodilation, D. Margination | B: Granuloma formation | Answer: B: Granuloma formation
Explanation: Granuloma formation occurs in chronic inflammation. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | Which of the following is a maker of Paget's disease of the mammary gland?
Select and explain.
A. CEA, B. S- 100, C. HMB 45, D. Neuron specific enolase | A: CEA | Answer: A: CEA
Explanation: Neoplastic cells in Paget's disease of mammary glands express markers CEA, CK 7 and GCDFP 15. The neoplastic cells also express androgen receptors and HER2/neu. Paget's disease of the nipple is a superficial manifestation of an underlying breast carcinoma. In most cases tumor cells have spread to the skin of the nipple and areola from underlying invasive ductal carcinoma or ductal carcinoma in situ. Ref: Harrison's Principles Of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 439, 563; Skin Cancer - A World-Wide Perspective By Reinhard Dummer, page 129; Bailey and Love's Sho practice of surgery 24th edition , page 837. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | Rigor mois appears last in: March 2012
Select and explain.
A. Eyelids, B. Neck, C. Lower limb, D. Toes | D: Toes | Answer: D: Toes
Explanation: Ans: D i.e. Toes Rigor mois first appears in the involuntary muscles; the myocardium. It begins in eyelids, neck and lower jaw and passes upwards to the muscle of the face, and downwards to the muscles of the chest, upper limbs, abdomen and lower limbs and lastly in the finger and toes |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Superior oblique muscle performs action of:
Select and explain.
A. Intoion, B. Extoion, C. Elevation, D. Medial rotation | A: Intoion | Answer: A: Intoion
Explanation: A i.e. Intoion |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Unknown | Eustachian tube opens into which part of tympanic cavity?
Select and explain.
A. Medial, B. Lateral, C. Anterior, D. Posterior | C: Anterior | Answer: C: Anterior
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: General, Subject name: Physiology | Centriole is absent in
Select and explain.
A. Liver, B. Spleen, C. Intestine, D. Kidney | A: Liver | Answer: A: Liver
Explanation: (Liver) (37-Ganong 23rd), Centrioles in hepatocytes cellular and molecular life sciences vol-24, Number 11, 1157-59, DOI 10; 1007/BFO 214785Centrioles which are small cytoplasmic bodies of about 150-200 nm in diameter and 300-350 nm in length concerned with organization in the spindle during cell division have rarely been reported in adult mammalian liver cellsCENTROSOMES - Near the nucleus in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic aniimal cells is a centrosome. The centrosome is made up of two centrioles and surrounding amorphous pericentriolar material* The centrosomes are microtubule - organizing centers (MTOCs) that contain y- tubulin* Centrioles are responsible for the movement of chromosomes during cell divisions (10.K. Sembulingum 5th)* If there is no centriol in the cell, the cell cannot divide. Neurons of postnatal life have no centrioles hence they cannot divide; hence in the post natal life no new neuron formation can occur. But throughout life, death of individuals neurons continue Hence in old age, there is considerable loss of brain mater (8- S.K chaudhari 6th) |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anaesthesia | True statements about local anaesthesia – a) It inhibits the generation of action potentialb) Unmyelinated thin fibers are most susceptible than myelinated large fibersc) Toxicity is reduced by addition of vasoconstrictord) Blocks all modalities of sensation at the same time
Select and explain.
A. ac, B. bc, C. ad, D. b | A: ac | Answer: A: ac
Explanation: Local anesthetics block generation and conduction of nerve impulse (action potential).
Myelinated fibers are more susceptible than nonmyelinated fibers and small fibers are more sensitive than large fibers.
Addition of vasconstrictor decreases systemic absorption and toxicity.
All modalities of sensation are not blocked at the same time because different sensory fibers have different sensitivity.
Order of block of sensory modalities :-
Temperature > Pain > touch > deep pressure > Proprioception. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | Not true about clofazamine ?
Select and explain.
A. Used in DLE, B. Causes ichthyosis and hyperpigmentation, C. Interferes DNA synthesis, D. Used in lepra reaction | A: Used in DLE | Answer: A: Used in DLE
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Used in DLE o Clofazimine interferes with template function of DNA, is used in lepra reaction and can cause icthyosis and hyperpigmentation. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | A space maintainer is least indicated for premature loss of a:
Select and explain.
A. Primary maxillary first molar, B. Primary mandibular first molar, C. Primary mandibular central incisor, D. Primary maxillary central incisor | D: Primary maxillary central incisor | Answer: D: Primary maxillary central incisor
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Rinsing of eye with water causes blurring of vision. Which of the following is the TRUE cause of blurring?
Select and explain.
A. Elimination of refraction through cornea, B. Extra refraction through water, C. Impurities of water, D. Speed of light is more through water | A: Elimination of refraction through cornea | Answer: A: Elimination of refraction through cornea
Explanation: Corneal refractive power is substantial in air but viually eliminated when the eye is under water. Under water, the divergent refraction by the cornea is small since the media on its both sides (water outside and anterior chamber liquid inside) have refractive indices not greatly different from that of the cornea itself. Ref: The Sensory Physiology of Aquatic Mammals By Alexander Ya, Page 232 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Miscellaneous (Gynae), Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | In a pregnant lady with hyperthyroidism , the safest drug to be used is -
Select and explain.
A. Propylthiouracil, B. Methimazole, C. Carbimazole, D. Lugols Iodine | A: Propylthiouracil | Answer: A: Propylthiouracil
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Propylthiouracil * Propylthiouracil is the DOC for hyperthyroidism in pregnancy.* Methimazole and carbimazole used in early pregnancy have been associated with esophageal and choanal atresia, aplasia cutis, and fetal agranulocytosis.* Graves' disease is the MC cause of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy.* Hashimoto's thyroiditis is the MC cause of hypothyroidism in pregnancy.* Complications associated with both hypo- and hyperthyroidism in pregnancy:1) Recurrent first trimester abortions2) IUGR3) Increased risk of preeclampsia4) Abruption5) Stillbirths, hydrop fetalis6) Preterm labor* Hypothyroidism is also associated with cretinism. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | S4 is seen in all of the following, Except:
Select and explain.
A. Thyrotoxicosis, B. Acute MI, C. Atrial fibrillation, D. Hyperophic cardiomyopathy | C: Atrial fibrillation | Answer: C: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation: Answer is C (Atrial Fibrillation) Atrial contraction must be present for production of' S4. It is absent in atrial fibrillation. Thyrotoxicosis. Acute MI, and Hyperophic cardiomyopathy are all associated with pathological fouh Hea sound (S4). Fouh Hea Sound (S4): Low frequency sound (low pitched)Q It is a diastolic hea sound that occurs sholy before S1 Q It occurs during the phase of ventricular filling and is associated with an effective atrial contraction Atrial contraction must be present for production of an S4Q It is best heard at the apex in the left lateral position It is better heard with the bell of the stethescopeQ Causes of Pathological Fouh Hea sound Fouh Heah Sound (S4), Atrial Diastolic gallop, and Presystolic Gallop: Decreased ventricular compliance Ventricular hyperophy - Left or right ventricular outflow obstruction - Systemic or pulmonary hypeension - Hyperophic cardiomyopathy Ischemic hea disease - Angina pectoris - Acute myocardial infarction - Old myocardial infarction - Ventricular aneurysm Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy Excessively rapid late diastolic filling secondary to: Vigorous atrial systole Hyperkinetic states - Anemia - Thyrotoxicosis Aeriovenous fistula Acute atrioventricular valve incompetence Arrhythmias Hea block Physiologic S4 may be recordable, but is rarely audible |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Virology, Subject name: Microbiology | Which of the following is not a prion disease
Select and explain.
A. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy, B. Transmissible mink encephalopathy, C. Scrapie, D. Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy | D: Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy | Answer: D: Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
Explanation: Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is a human infection caused by a papova virus. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | The drug which may inhibit P450 for warfarin is which one of the following:
Select and explain.
A. Cimetidine, B. Ethanol, C. Rifampicin, D. Procainamide | A: Cimetidine | Answer: A: Cimetidine
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Chemotherapeutic drug effective in the treatment of epithelial ovarian cancer is:a) Carboplatinb) Paclitaxelc) Cyclophosphamided) Methotrexate karnatka
Select and explain.
A. ac, B. a, C. ab, D. bc | C: ab | Answer: C: ab
Explanation: Role of Chemotherapy in Epithelial ovarian tumors |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Infection, Subject name: Medicine | What is the most likely diagnosis for this 19-month-old girl who presented with a 1-week history of an ascending erythematous eruption?
Select and explain.
A. Cellulitis, B. Hand, foot, and mouth disease, C. Herpes zoster, D. Lymphadenitis | C: Herpes zoster | Answer: C: Herpes zoster
Explanation: Answer C. Herpes zosterThe results of a scraping from the base of several vesicles were positive for the varicella-zoster virus. The lesions resolved within 2 weeks of treatment with acyclovir. Herpes zoster is unusual in persons younger than 10 years of age, and when it does occur in this age group, the lesions have a predilection for dermatomes supplied by the cervical and sacral nerves. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Nervous System, Subject name: Physiology | A 42-year-old man presents with central, crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw. The pain occurred while jogging around the local park. The pain was alleviated with rest. The ECG is normal. Diagnosis is?
Select and explain.
A. Angina pectoris, B. Acute Pericarditis, C. STEMI, D. NSTEMI | A: Angina pectoris | Answer: A: Angina pectoris
Explanation: Ans. A Angina pectorisRef CMDT 2019 pg. 369The patient is having chest pain on jogging which is a presentation of chronic stable Angina. It is aggravated by cold, by anxiety, and by exercise. In the case of a normal resting ECG, an exercise ECG should be obtained. All other choices present with chest pain on rest. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Alopecia, Subject name: Skin | Alopecia areata is a/ an -
Select and explain.
A. Autoimmune disorder, B. Allergic disorder, C. Anaphylactic disorder, D. Bacterial infection | A: Autoimmune disorder | Answer: A: Autoimmune disorder
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Autoimmune disorder Pathogenesis of alopecia areata1. Autoimmunityo Current evidence suggests that alopecia areata is caused by an abnormality in the immune system. This particular abnormality leads autoimmunity. As a result, body's own immune system attacks the hair follicles and disrupts normal hair formations. Autoimmune pathogenesis is supported by -The germinative zones of hair follicles are surrounded by T-lvmphocytes, where they are not normally present.Sometimes alopecia areata is associated with other autoimmune disorders, e.g. vitiligo, IL4, ulcerative colitis, hypothyroidism.# Frequency of type 1 DM is increased in relative of patients with alopecia areata but not in patient themselves --> alopecia areata may be protective against type 1 DM.2. Genetic factorso Besides autoimmunity genetic factors also have pathogenic role10-20% Patients give family historyfThere is polygenic inheritenceStrong association between alopecia areata and MHC class II, i.e. HLA-DR4, HLA DR-5, HLA DQ-3Genetic disorders like autoimmune polyglandular syndrome type I and Down s syndrome have high incidence of alopecia areata. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Unknown | Allergic BPA which kind of hypersensitivity reaction -
Select and explain.
A. Type I, B. Type II, C. Type III, D. Type IV | A: Type I | Answer: A: Type I
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Type I {Ref: Robbia's 9th/ep. 683] |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | Cerebellar connection to other parts of the brain is projected through which cell -
Select and explain.
A. Golgi cells, B. Basket cells, C. Purkinje cells, D. Oligodendrocytes | C: Purkinje cells | Answer: C: Purkinje cells
Explanation: The axons of purkinje cells are the only output through cerebellar cortex.
However, it should be kept in mind that the output from the cerebellum is through deep nuclei, purkinje cells axons generally pass to deep nuclei. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | All the following occur in hemostasis except ?
Select and explain.
A. Vasospams of blood vessel, B. Platelet plug formation, C. Dissolution of clot by plasmin, D. None | D: None | Answer: D: None
Explanation: Ans. is None o All the processes from vosoconstriction to dissolution of clot are the pa of hemostasis. |