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This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Extrahepatic cholestasis is associated with:
Select and explain.
A. T bilirubin in urine, B. T urobilirubin in urine, C. T bilirubin and T urobilirubin in serum, D. T bilirubin in serum | A: T bilirubin in urine | Answer: A: T bilirubin in urine
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: G.I.T, Subject name: Pathology | Gene responsible for pathogenesis of H pylori
Select and explain.
A. Cag A, B. Cag B, C. Tax A, D. Hbx | A: Cag A | Answer: A: Cag A
Explanation: Cytotoxic: products of two genes namely cytotoxin- associated gene A(cagA) and vacuolating agent(vacA) gene cause gastritis, peptic ulceration and cancer GENERAL AND SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY RAMDAS NAYAK FIRST EDITION PAGE 379 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: General anatomy, Subject name: Anatomy | Rotator interval is between
Select and explain.
A. Supraspinatus and trees minor, B. Teres major and teres minor, C. Supraspinatus and subsacapularis, D. Subsapalris and infraspinatus | C: Supraspinatus and subsacapularis | Answer: C: Supraspinatus and subsacapularis
Explanation: Refer Essentials of Ohopedic surgery Rotator interval is a triangular poion of shoulder capsule which lies between supraspinatus and subsacapularis tendon |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Forearm wrist and hand injuries, Subject name: Orthopaedics | Baon's fracture is injury to ?
Select and explain.
A. Fracture distal end humerus, B. Extra-aicular fracture distal end radius, C. Intra-aicular fracture distal end radius, D. Intra-aicular fracture distal end radius with carpal bone subluxation | D: Intra-aicular fracture distal end radius with carpal bone subluxation | Answer: D: Intra-aicular fracture distal end radius with carpal bone subluxation
Explanation: Baon&;s fracture is an intra aicular fracture of distal radius. Here fracture extends from aicular surface of the radius to either its anterior or posterior coices. The small distal fragments get displaced and carries with it the carpals.(carpal bone subluxation) 2 types of volar Baons fracture and dorsal Baons fracture. Treatment: closed manipulation and plaster cast. when closed reduction fails, internal fixation with plate may be required. Ref: Essential Ohopaedics, Maheswari & Mhaskar, 9th ed, Page no: 114 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | In a seriously ill patient, addition of amino acids in the diet results in a positive nitrogen balance. The mechanism for this is
Select and explain.
A. Increased absorption of amino acids from the intestine, B. Enhanced rates of gluconeogenesis, C. Increased secretion of insulin, D. Increased Growth hormone secretion | C: Increased secretion of insulin | Answer: C: Increased secretion of insulin
Explanation: Glucose, mannose, aminoacids (such as leucine, arginine, others) and β ketoacids such as acetoacetate (derived from fat catabolism) stimulate insulin secretin and have protein sparing effect.
Insulin has anabolic effect on metabolism. It decreases protein catabolism and fat catabolism for energy production and increases aminoacid uptake and protein synthesis (positive nitrogen balance). |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Breast, Subject name: Surgery | Nipple inversion occurs due to involvement of:
Select and explain.
A. Cooper's ligament, B. Subareolarm duct, C. Parenchyma of breast, D. Subdermal lymphatics | B: Subareolarm duct | Answer: B: Subareolarm duct
Explanation: Ans. (b) Subareolar duct(Ref: Bailey 25/e p834)* Peau- de orange - Subdermal Lymphatic infiltration (T4b)* Dimpling/Puckering/tethering of skin - Due to Coopers ligament of breast involvement (It is not skin involvement is T staging)* Nipple retraction - Fibrosis in and around the Subareolar duct |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Which muscle does not decussate in modiolus
Select and explain.
A. Levator labli superious, B. Orbiculesis Oris, C. Zygomaticus major, D. Buccinator | A: Levator labli superious | Answer: A: Levator labli superious
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | A 25 year old male presented with pigmentation of nose and pinna. After voiding, his urine becomes dark. His spine is most likely to show -
Select and explain.
A. Atlantoaxial subluxation, B. Spondyloptosis, C. Basilar invagination, D. Calcification of disc | D: Calcification of disc | Answer: D: Calcification of disc
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Blood, Subject name: Pathology | Hairy leukoplakia is characterized by?
Select and explain.
A. Pain, B. EBV infection, C. No association with HIV, D. Pre-cancerous | B: EBV infection | Answer: B: EBV infection
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e. EBV infection Hairy leukoplakia (Oral hairy leukoplakia, OHL)* It is a condition caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and occurs usually in persons who are immunocompromised, especially those with HIV/AIDS.* It presents an asymptomatic white patch, which almost exclusively occurs on the lateral surfaces of the tongue. The lesion may grow to involve the dorsal surface of the tongue.* The texture is vertically corrugated ("hairy") or thickly furrowed and shaggy in appearance* The white appearance is created by hyperkeratosis (overproduction of keratin) and epithelial hyperplasia* Treatment is not necessary since the lesion is benign & self-limiting. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: All India exam, Subject name: Anatomy | Aery which does not supply Medulla is
Select and explain.
A. Anterior spinal, B. Posterior spinal, C. Superior cerebellar, D. Posterior inferior cerebellar | C: Superior cerebellar | Answer: C: Superior cerebellar
Explanation: Medulla supplied byAnterior spinalPosterior spinalPosterior inferior cerebellar Direct medullary branches of veebral and basilar |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: general microbiology, Subject name: Microbiology | Silver impregnation technique is used in the identification of ?
Select and explain.
A. Spirochaetes, B. Leptospira, C. Borrelia, D. All of the above | D: All of the above | Answer: D: All of the above
Explanation: Silver impregnation: cells and structure too thin to be seen under the ordinary microscope may be rendered visible if they are thickened by impregnation of silver on the surface. Such a method is used for the demonstration of spirochetes and bacterial flagella REF:Ananthanarayan & Panicker's Textbook of Microbiology 9th edition pg no:13 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Broad Granular casts are seen in
Select and explain.
A. Chronic renal failure, B. Glomerular injury, C. Thrombotic Microangiopathy, D. Pyelonephritis | A: Chronic renal failure | Answer: A: Chronic renal failure
Explanation: Broad granular casts - Chronic renal failure.
RBC casts - Glomerular injury. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Psoriasis associated with p – hemolytic streptococcal infection –
Select and explain.
A. Psoriasis vulgaris, B. Erythrodermic psoriasis, C. Pustular psoriasis, D. Guttate psoriasis | D: Guttate psoriasis | Answer: D: Guttate psoriasis
Explanation: Guttate psoriasis is precipitated by upper respiratory tract infection, e.g. streptococcal tonsilitis. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | The deciduous canine emerges:
Select and explain.
A. Before lateral incisor, B. Before first molar, C. After first molar, D. After second molar | C: After first molar | Answer: C: After first molar
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anaesthesia | Longest acting local anaesthetic is: March 2013 (e, h)
Select and explain.
A. Procaine, B. Lignocaine, C. Bupivacaine, D. All of the above | C: Bupivacaine | Answer: C: Bupivacaine
Explanation: Ans. C i.e. Bupivacaine Bupivacaine Amide with duration of action more than 2 hours, C/I for: Bier's block/Intravenous regional anaesthesia/IVRA It is highly cardiotoxic Cardiotoxicity is not easily reversible, Levo-bupivacaine is used by epidural/intrathecal route |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | Population covered by Anganwadi in tribal area is
Select and explain.
A. 700, B. 100, C. 400, D. 1000 | A: 700 | Answer: A: 700
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Unknown | Partogram in pregnancy includes all of the following except -
Select and explain.
A. Uterine contraction, B. Cervical dilatation in time scale, C. Descent of foetal head in time scale, D. Non-stress Test | D: Non-stress Test | Answer: D: Non-stress Test
Explanation: Ans: D |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Ear, Subject name: ENT | Otoconia is related to
Select and explain.
A. Hearing, B. Balance, C. Smell, D. Taste | B: Balance | Answer: B: Balance
Explanation: Otoconia are bio-crystals which couple mechanic forces to the sensory hair cells in the utricle and saccule, a process essential for us to sense linear acceleration and gravity for the purpose of maintaining bodily balance. In fish, structurally similar bio-crystals called otoliths mediate balance Ref : Internet sources. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | True about Rheumatic fever
Select and explain.
A. Chorea is aggravated during pregnancy, B. Chorea & ahritis co-existing, C. Subcutaneous nodules are tender, D. Erythema multiforme seen | A: Chorea is aggravated during pregnancy | Answer: A: Chorea is aggravated during pregnancy
Explanation: Answer is A (Chorea is aggrevated during pregnancy) Sydenham's chorea may be aggravated by pregnancy. 'Patient's with sydenham's chorea may have chorea during pregnancy (chorea gravidarum) and are at higher risk of chorea induced by phenytoin or oral contraceptives' - The 5- Minute Neurology consult (2003) /399 Sydenhom's chorea usually occurs in isolation and is not associated with ahritis usually. Subcutaneous nodules are typically non tender. Rheumatic fever is associated with Erythema marginatum and not Erythema multiforme Featues of Sydenham's chorea in Rheumatic Fever (10-15% of patients) It usually occurs after a prolonged latent period after group A streptococcus It usually occurs in the absence of other manifestation (usually not associated with ahritis or carditis) It usually occurs in females Presents as rapid, jerkey, involuntary movements (choreiform movements) affecting predominantly the Head /Face and Upper limbs May be generalized or restricted to one side / asymmetrical Typical signs include Milk maid Grip Spooning of extended hands Daing of the protruded tongue Pronator signs Typically associated with excessive emotional lability and personality changes It is a self limiting condition and eventually resolves completely, usually within 6 weeks. Recurrence of chorea may be seen late after complete resolution Factors inducing Recurrence Pregnancy (Chorea gravidorum) Re infection with streptocossus / non specific infections Use of oral contraceptives |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Metabolic disorders, Subject name: Pediatrics | Treatment of multiple carboxylase deficiency
Select and explain.
A. Biotin, B. Pyridoxine, C. Thiamine, D. Folic acid | A: Biotin | Answer: A: Biotin
Explanation: Treatment of multiple carboxylase or biotinidase deficiency is biotin.Oral dose is 10-40 mg/kg/day Reference:Essential pediatrics-Ghai,8th edition,page no:650 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Unknown | HILL’S criteria of causal association are all except:
Select and explain.
A. Specificity of association, B. Sensitivity, C. Consistency, D. Coherence | B: Sensitivity | Answer: B: Sensitivity
Explanation: Bradford Hill & others pointed out that the likelihood of a causal relationship is increased by the presence of the following criteria :
Temporal Association
Strength of Association
Specificity of Association
Consistency of Association
Biological Plausibility
Coherence of Association |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | Aerial supply of latismus dorsi is:
Select and explain.
A. Subscapular aery, B. Circumflex humeral aery, C. Thoracodorsal aery, D. Lateral aery | A: Subscapular aery | Answer: A: Subscapular aery
Explanation: A. i.e. Subscapular aerySubscapular aery is largest branch of axillary aeryQ arise from its 3i-cl pa & supplies lattismus dorsi and serratus anterior musclesQ. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | The major lipids that make up the cell membrane are:
Select and explain.
A. Triglycerides, B. Phospholipids, C. Sphingomyelins, D. Fatty acids | B: Phospholipids | Answer: B: Phospholipids
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | A patient presents with B/L proptosis, heat intolerance and palpitations; most unlikely diagnosis here would be
Select and explain.
A. Hoshimoto's thyroiditis, B. Thyroid adenoma, C. Diffuse thyroid goitre, D. Reidel's thyroiditis | D: Reidel's thyroiditis | Answer: D: Reidel's thyroiditis
Explanation: Answer is D (Reidel's thyroiditis) : Reidel's thyroiditis is usually a consistently hypothyroid condition. The patient in the given question is presenting with symptoms of Hypehyroidism. The condition, most unlikely to produce the picture is the one where hypehyroidism is not a feature, not even transient. Reidel's thyroiditis is one such consistently hypothyroid condition. Thyrotoxicosis is usual with thyroid adenoma and diffuse thyroid goitre and Hashimoto's thyroiditis can present with transient hypehyroidism. Hashimoto's Thyroiditis (Auto immune): In this variant, mild hypehyroidism may be present initially, although hypothyroidism is inevitable. Hypothyroidism may develop rapidly or extremely slowly. The initial phase of hypehyroidism may account for the symptoms in the given patient. Thyroid adenoma, diffuse toxic goitre or Grave's disease, toxic nodular goitre, toxic nodule: All are causes of thyrotoxicosis & explain the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis in the above patient. 733/L&B Riedle's thyroiditis is a very rare disease wherein , the thyroid tissue is replaced by cellular fibrous tissue. The goitre may be unilateral or bilateral & is very hard and fixed. This condition presents with features of hypothyroidism. Hypehyroidism is not manifested, not even transiently. The differential diagnosis is from an anaplastic carcinoma & can be made with ceainity only by biopsy. Diffuse thyroid goitre :Most commonly presents with a euthyroid status however patients may present with hypehyroidism. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pediatrics | At what age upper segment : lower segment ratio becomes 1 : 1 ?
Select and explain.
A. 3 - 6 years, B. 5 - 8 years, C. 7 - 10 years, D. 10 - 12 years | C: 7 - 10 years | Answer: C: 7 - 10 years
Explanation: Age
US : LS Ratio
Birth
1.7 : 1
3 years
1.3 : 1
7 - 10 years
1 : 1
> 10 years
0.3 : 1 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Endometriosis, Adenomyosis, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Which of these is not an ultrasound finding consistent with diagnosis of adenomyosis?
Select and explain.
A. Uterine enlargement, B. Subendometrial echogenic linear striations, C. Thickening of transitional zone, D. Encapsulated hypoechoic lesion | D: Encapsulated hypoechoic lesion | Answer: D: Encapsulated hypoechoic lesion
Explanation: USG findings in adenomyosis Uterine enlargement not explained by leiomyoma Subendometrial echogenic linear striations Heterogenous echotexture Cystic anechoic spaces or hypoechoic areas: lakes of endometrial blood Junctional zone between endometrium and myometrium>12 mm (normal 5-8 mm) Obscured endo-myometrial interface |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Ophthalmology | A person suffered an injury in the right eye with a tennis ball. Following which he developed pain and on examination of fundus a red spot is seen at the macula. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Select and explain.
A. Berlin's edema, B. Macular bleed, C. Macular hole, D. Macular tear | A: Berlin's edema | Answer: A: Berlin's edema
Explanation: This patient has developed Berlins edema following injury to the eye. This is caused by a pressure wave which pass into the posterior pole of the eye following blunt eye trauma. In this condition retina develops a grey white colour seen mainly in the outer retina which may extend to the macula. If it involves the macula, it results in cherry red spot seen at the fovea. This is because fovea is very thin and it reflects the red colour of underlying normal choroid. Other causes of cherry red spot: Tay-Sachs disease, Niemann- Pick disease, generalized GM1, gangliosidosis, Farber's lipogranulomatosis, infantile Gaucher's disease, metachromatic leukodystrophy and sialidosis types 1 and 2. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders, Subject name: Psychiatry | The term "Dementia praecox" was coined by
Select and explain.
A. Freud, B. Bleuler, C. Kraepelin, D. Schneider | C: Kraepelin | Answer: C: Kraepelin
Explanation: Although earlier descriptions of schizophrenia-like illness are recorded in the literature (such as in Ayurveda; Kahlbaum's description of catatonia; Hecker's description of hebephrenia), the scientific study of the disorder began with the description of dementia praecox by Emil Kraepelin. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 54 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | A female presents with primary amenorrhea and absent vagina, the next investigation to be done is :
Select and explain.
A. LH / FSH assay, B. Chromosomal analysis, C. Urianalysis, D. Laparoscopy | D: Laparoscopy | Answer: D: Laparoscopy
Explanation: Laparoscopy |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: All India exam, Subject name: Anatomy | what is the cell junction marked as circle ?
Select and explain.
A. zona adherens, B. fascia adherens, C. macula adherens, D. zonna occludens | A: zona adherens | Answer: A: zona adherens
Explanation: image shows : zona occludens : tight junctions in intestine and renal tubular cells ell Junctions Types Tight Junctions (Occluding Junctions) Seal adjacent epithelial cells together prevent passage of molecules, membrane-bound lipids and proteins Gap Junctions (Communicating Junctions)= Allow adjacent cell communication; pass ions & small molecules between cytoplasms Focal Adhesions & Hemidesmosomes (Anchoring Junctions, Actin & Intermediate Filament Attachment Sites)= Form around integrin-mediated cell--ECM contacts Focal adhesions connect integrins to actin filaments Hemidesmosomes connect integrins to intermediate filaments Adherens Junctions & Desmosomes (Anchoring Junctions, Actin & Intermediate Filament Attachment Sites) Form around cadherin-mediated cell--cell contacts Adherens junctions connect cadherins to actin filaments Desmosomes connect cadherins to intermediate filaments ref : bd chaurasia/guyton and hall |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | Which of the following is true about colon carcinomaa) Rt. sided colon carcinoma associated with young individualsb) Most common site is sigmoid colonc) Rt. sided colon carcinoma present as chronic anemiad) Not resectable in case of metastasise) Rt. sided colon has better prognosis than Lt. sided colon.
Select and explain.
A. bce, B. bc, C. acd, D. ace | A: bce | Answer: A: bce
Explanation: • Left sided colon cancers are more infiltrative at the time of diagnosis than right lesions, associated with poor prognosis |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Nervous System, Subject name: Physiology | First reflex to reappear after spinal shock?
Select and explain.
A. Myotactic reflex, B. Withdrawal reflex, C. Stretch reflex, D. Inverse stretch reflex | B: Withdrawal reflex | Answer: B: Withdrawal reflex
Explanation: Ans. B Withdrawal reflexRef: Ganong, 25th ed. pg. 235* In days following development of spinal shock patient will have low threshold for elicitation of withdrawal reflex* Minimal noxious stimulus to arm will lead to withdrawal of one extremity and marked flexion-extension pattern of other 3 limbs.* Later the Deep tendon reflexes become brisk* Application of minor noxious stimulus will lead to evacuation of bladder and rectum called mass reflex. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: KUB & Adrenal Gland, Subject name: Anatomy | The part of urinary bladder that shows non-keratinizing squamous metaplasia in adult females?
Select and explain.
A. Anterior wall, B. Urethral orifice, C. Trigone, D. Ureteral orifice | C: Trigone | Answer: C: Trigone
Explanation: Ans. c (Trigone) (Ref. Smith's urology, p. 266)Nonkeratinizing squamous metaplasia (Trigonitis) is the squamous metaplastic changes that occur in the trigone of the bladder, almost exclusively in women of childbearing age (almost nonexistent in children).Trigonal nonkeratinizing squamous metaplasia# The trigone of the bladder (as well as the ureters) are embryologically derived from the mesonephric duct primordial.# Mucosal lining, with the exception of trigone, is rugose in undistended organ but smoothens as filling proceeds.# Normally, trigone is covered in relatively impermeable transitional epithelium. In young females, there may be an overgrowth of squamous vaginal-type epithelium, often referred to as trigonitis. Trigonitis is incorrect terminology because no associated inflammatory reaction exists, and this condition is referred to more properly as trigonal nonkeratinizing squamous metaplasia.# The keratinizing variant frequently is associated with chronic irritation secondary to indwelling instrumentation, calculi, or, in endemic areas, Schistosoma haematobium infection. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anaesthesia | Which of the following anaesthetic agent also has anti-emetic propey: September 2006
Select and explain.
A. Ketamine, B. Thiopentone, C. Propofol, D. Nitrous oxide | C: Propofol | Answer: C: Propofol
Explanation: Ans. C: Propofol Anaesthetics with anti-emetic propey: Midazolam given at the onset of anaesthesia has been shown in to be as effective as ondansetron Propofol is versatile; the drug can be given for sho or prolonged sedation as well as for general anaesthesia. It is an anti-emetic. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: General anatomy, Subject name: Anatomy | Following injury to blood vessels , immediate haemostasis is achieved by which of the following
Select and explain.
A. Fibrin deposition, B. Vasoconstriction, C. Platelets adhesion, D. Thrombosis | B: Vasoconstriction | Answer: B: Vasoconstriction
Explanation: ref Robbins 8/e p115 Vascular spasm (Vasoconstriction) -Vasoconstriction is produced by vascular smooth muscle cells, and is the blood vessel's first response to injury. ... When a blood vessel is damaged, there is an immediate reflex, initiated by local sympathetic pain receptors, which helps promote vasoconstriction |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Psychiatry | All of the following are true for Korsakoff's psychosis except: March 2010
Select and explain.
A. Organic amnestic syndrome, B. Loss of insight, C. Deficiency of cyanocobalamin, D. It may follow Wernicke's encephalopathy | C: Deficiency of cyanocobalamin | Answer: C: Deficiency of cyanocobalamin
Explanation: Ans. C: Deficiency of cyanocobalamin Korsakoff's psychosis/amnesic-confabulatory syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by the lack of thiamine (vitamin B1) in the brain. There are six major symptoms of Korsakoff's syndrome: Anterograde amnesia and Retrograde amnesia, severe memory loss Confabulation, that is, invented memories which are then taken as true due to gaps in memory sometimes associated with blackouts Meager content in conversation Lack of insight Apathy - the patients lose interest in things quickly and generally appear indifferent to change. These symptoms are caused by a deficiency of thiamine, which is thought to cause damage to the medial thalamus and possibly to the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus as well as generalized cerebral atrophy. When Wernicke's encephalopathy accompanies Korsakoff's syndrome, the combination is called the Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. Korsakoff's is a continuum of Wernicke's encephalopathy, though a recognised episode of Wernicke's is not always obvious. Korsakoff's involves damage to neurons; gliosis which is a result of damage to suppoing cells of the central nervous system; and hemorrhage or bleeding in mammillary bodies. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Ophthalmology | A 17-year-old girl with keratitis and severe pain in the eye came to the hospital and acanthamoeba keratitis was suspected. The patient gave the history of the following 4 points. Out of these which is not a risk factor for acanthamoeba keratitis –
Select and explain.
A. Extended wear contact lens, B. Exposure to dirty water, C. Corneal trauma, D. Squamous blepharitis | D: Squamous blepharitis | Answer: D: Squamous blepharitis
Explanation: Corneal infection with acanthamoeba result from direct corneal contact with any material or water contaminated with the organism. The risk factors are : (i) Contact lens use, (ii) Trauma, (iii) Opportunistic infections. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pediatrics | The primary defet which leads to sickle cell anemia is -
Select and explain.
A. An abnormality in porphyrin pa of hemoglobin, B. Replacement of glutamate by valine in b-chain of HbA, C. Replacement of glutamate by valine in b-chain of HbA, D. Substitution of valine by glutamate in the a-chain of HbA | B: Replacement of glutamate by valine in b-chain of HbA | Answer: B: Replacement of glutamate by valine in b-chain of HbA
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Replacement of glutamate by valine in b chain of HBA Sickle cell anemia Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary hemoglobinopathy, i.e. the type of disease characterized by production of defective hemoglobin. Normal hemoglobin o The hemoglobin molecule is an assembly of four globular protein. o Each subunit is composed of a protein pa, i.e. globin and a nonprotein pa, i.e. heme, i.e. Each hemoglobin molecule contains four heme units and two pairs of similar protein, globin. o The heme pa of globular protein is same in all types of hemoglobin. o The protein pa vary in different hemoglobin ? 1. Adult hemoglobin (Hemoglobin A) consist of two identical alpha-chains and two identical alpha-chains. 2. Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) consists of two identical a-chains and two identical y chains. 3. Minor hemoglobin (HbA,) consist of two identical a-chains and two identical S chains. o Normally adult blood contains about 96% of HbA (a,(32)3-3.5% HbA2 (a2O2), and small amount of fetal hemoglobin HbF (.272). Defect in sickle cell anemia Sickle cell anemia results from mutation in fI-globin gene. o It is caused by a point mutation at the sixth position of the beta-globin chain leading to substution of a valine residue for a glutamic acid residue. resulting in sickle hemoglobin (HbS). Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive disorder. o If an individual is homozygous for the sickle cell mutation, almost all the hemoglobin in the red cell is HbS. o In heterozyogotes, only about 40% of the hemoglobin is HbS, the remainder being normal hemoglobins. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Stomach & Duodenum, Subject name: Surgery | A patient who has undergone partial gastrectomy presents with neurological symptoms. Most probable diagnosis:
Select and explain.
A. Folic acid deficiency, B. Thiamine deficiency, C. Vitamin B12 deficiency, D. Iron deficiency | C: Vitamin B12 deficiency | Answer: C: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation: Ans. (c) Vitamin B12 deficiencyRef: Sabsiton 20th Edition, Page 1212* Following partial gastrectomy there is decreased production of Intrinsic factor which leads to vitamin B12 deficiency. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | Essential for tumor metastasis is:
Select and explain.
A. Angiogenesis, B. Tumorogenesis, C. Apoptosis, D. Inhibition of Tyrosine kinase activity | A: Angiogenesis | Answer: A: Angiogenesis
Explanation: Angiogenesis |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Psoriasis, Subject name: Dental | Ixekizumab is novel drug approved by the FDA for treatment of psoriasis, MOA of this drug is :
Select and explain.
A. IL-17A agonist, B. IL-17A antagonist, C. IL-12/23 antagonist, D. PDE 4 inhibitor | B: IL-17A antagonist | Answer: B: IL-17A antagonist
Explanation: Ixekizumab, approved for treatment of plaque psoriasis. It is a humanized IL-17A antagonist that works when IgG4 monoclonal antibodies selectively bind with IL-17A cytokines and inhibit their interaction with the IL-17 receptor. Secukinumab, similar to Ixekizumab, this injectable is an IgG1 monoclonal antibody that selectively binds to the IL-17A cytokine and inhibits its interaction with the IL-17 receptor. It is approved for the treatment of plaque psoriasis and psoriatic ahritis. Ustekinumab : Anti IL-12/23 Apremilast: PDE-4 inhibitor |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | For a survey a village is divided into 5 lanes then each lane is sampled randomly is an example is:
Select and explain.
A. Simple random sampling, B. Stratified random sampling, C. Systematic random sampling, D. All if the above | B: Stratified random sampling | Answer: B: Stratified random sampling
Explanation: Stratified random sampling Random/probability sample : sample in which researcher can specify the population known factor of any one element (same)in the population being included.(being picking link). So every person has an equal chance of selection in random sampling. - Probability samples used in inferential statistics - Non probabilities samples used in only descriptive statistics Type of probability sample (Random sample) 1. Simple random sample - All person have equal right to be selected. Simplest type of random probability. 2. Stratified random sample - in it the population is 1st divided into relatively internally homogenous group of strata from which random sampling are drawn. Example:Village Population 3. Systematic sample - it involve selecting element in a systematic way. Example: Every 10th baby born in area. Every 3rd person admitted to hospital. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: General anatomy, Subject name: Anatomy | 13.All the following are true of antrochonal polyp,except:
Select and explain.
A. Common in children, B. Single and unilateral, C. Bleeds on touch, D. Treatment involves avulsion | C: Bleeds on touch | Answer: C: Bleeds on touch
Explanation: Ref.Dhingra 6/e p 174,175 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | Contents of Deep perineal pouch include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select and explain.
A. Root of penis, B. Sphincter urethrae, C. Bulbourethral gland, D. Dorsal Nerve of penis | A: Root of penis | Answer: A: Root of penis
Explanation: Root of penis is present in the superficial perineal pouch and not in the deep perineal pouch. Contents of the deep perineal pouch are: Sphincter urethraBubourethral glandsDorsal nerve of penisMembranous pa of urethraDeep transverse perineal muscleInternal pudendal vessel and its branches Ref: Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students By Richard S Snell, 6th Edition, Page 369 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Not seen in hyponatremia: March 2009
Select and explain.
A. Nausea, B. Delusion, C. Vomiting, D. Anorexia | B: Delusion | Answer: B: Delusion
Explanation: Ans. B: Delusion |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: General pathology, Subject name: Pathology | Which one of the following are most improtant antigen presenting cells in human-
Select and explain.
A. Macrophages, B. Plasma cells, C. Langerhan's cells\/histiocytes, D. Lymphocytes | C: Langerhan's cells\/histiocytes | Answer: C: Langerhan's cells\/histiocytes
Explanation: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease South Asia edition. *immature dendritic cells within the epidermis are called langerhans cells .dendritic cells are the most impoant antigen presenting cells for initiating T cell responses against protein antigen. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | Purulent inflammation and infection of terminal pulp space of distal phalanges is known as: September 2009
Select and explain.
A. Acute paronychium, B. Whitlow, C. Acute suppurative tenosynovitis, D. Apical subungual infection | B: Whitlow | Answer: B: Whitlow
Explanation: Ans. B: Whitlow Whitlow/Felons are closed-space infections of the fingeip pulp. This is the commonest hand infection . Fingeip pulp is divided into numerous small compaments by veical septa that stabilize the pad. Infection occurring within these compaments can lead to abscess formation, edema, and rapid development of increased pressure in a closed space. This increased pressure may compromise blood flow and lead to necrosis of the skin and pulp.There is little room for swelling, so that infection causes a throbbing pain early. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause Complications Osteomyelitis involving the diaphysis of distal phalanx is a common complication. The most serious complication is acute tenosynovitis, which may result from contiguous spread of infection. Other complications include skin necrosis, deformity of the fingeip, septic ahritis, and instability of the finger pad. It is managed by incision & drainage. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Haematology, Subject name: Medicine | A 32-year-old female, asymptomatic, not requiring blood transfusion, presents with Hb 13.0 gm/dl. Her HbF levels are 95%, HbA2, 1.5%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis -
Select and explain.
A. Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin, B. Beta homozygous thalassemia, C. Thalassemia intermedia, D. Beta heterozygous thalasiemia | A: Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin | Answer: A: Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin
Explanation: <p>In contrast to alpha thalassemia ,gene deletion rarely ever causes beta thalassemia & is only seen in an entity called hereditary persistence of foetal hemoglobin (HPFH).</p><p>In the given case scenario ,HbA2 is within normal limit (1.5-3.5%) in contrast to thalassemia where the HbA2 will be increased .</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 322.</p> |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | Y descent in jugular venous pulsation is due to
Select and explain.
A. Ventricular systole, B. Atrial systole, C. Atrial filling, D. Ventricular filling | D: Ventricular filling | Answer: D: Ventricular filling
Explanation: Y descent is due to passive movement of blood from atria to ventricles i.e. early diastolic filling |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Neuroanatomy 1, Subject name: Anatomy | Damage to which Brodmann area is responsible for motor aphasia
Select and explain.
A. 22, B. 39, C. 40, D. 44 | D: 44 | Answer: D: 44
Explanation: Motor aphasia is due to lesion in Broca's area which belong to Brodmann's area 44, (inferior frontal gyrus). |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | Superior cerebellar peduncle contains mainly which tract ?
Select and explain.
A. Tectocerebellar, B. Olivocerebellar, C. Vestibulo cerebellar, D. Reticulo cerebellar | A: Tectocerebellar | Answer: A: Tectocerebellar
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., TectocerebellarSuperior cerebellar peduncle This is the major output of the brain and connects to the midbrain, the cerebellothalamic tract (to the thalamus), and the cerebellorubral tract (to the red nucleus). It receives afferents from the locus coeruleus, and ventral spinocerebellar tract.Middle cerebellar peduncle This is the largest peduncle and connects the cerebellum to the pons. It connects the contralateral pontine nucleus to the cerebellar coex and also carries the input from the contralateral cerebral coex. It is composed of three fasciculi including the superior, inferior and deep.Inferior cerebellar peduncleThis connects the spinal cord and medulla to the cerebellum. The posterior spinocerebellar tract receives proprioceptive information from the body. The cuneocerebellar tract receives proprioceptive input from the upper limb and neck. The trigeminocerebellar tract sends proprioceptive input from the face. The juxtarestiform is an efferent system here. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: International health agencies, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | WHO was established in?
Select and explain.
A. 1945, B. 1948, C. 1950, D. 1956 | A: 1945 | Answer: A: 1945
Explanation: WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION (WHO):- WHO is a specialized, non-political health agency of United Nations established in 1945. Constituition Came into force on 7th April, 1948. April -7th - World health day. Objective of WHO: is attainment by all people of the highest level of health First constitutional function of WHO: to act as the directing and co-coordinating authority on all international health work. Headquaers of WHO: Geneva, Switzerland. Structure of WHO: The world health assembly (WHA) The executive board The secretariat |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Heart & Pericardium, Subject name: Surgery | After suffering a streptococcal throat infection, a 12-year-old immigrant boy develops cardiac symptoms that are attributed to rheumatic fever. Years later, at the age of 34 he is admitted to the hospital with pulmonary edema. Further examination reveals a diastolic murmur at the apex and mitral stenosis is diagnosed. Before surgical evaluation, which of the following findings can be attributed to mitral stenosis?
Select and explain.
A. Large left ventricle, B. Indentation of the middle third of the esophagus by an enlarged left atrium, C. Notching of the ribs, D. Bounding, full pulse | B: Indentation of the middle third of the esophagus by an enlarged left atrium | Answer: B: Indentation of the middle third of the esophagus by an enlarged left atrium
Explanation: Dilation of the left atrium is the obvious complication following long-standing mitral stenosis. Echocardiography is the simplest and most precise method of showing enlargement of the left atrium. Frequently, there is a latency period of 15-20 years before symptoms become evident. Important complications of mitral stenosis include exertional dyspnea caused by an increase in left atrial pressure and backup of blood with possible pulmonary edema, decreased cardiac output, atrial fibrillation, emboli (15%), and pressure in the intermediate third of the esophagus as seen on an esophogram after barium swallow. The pulse in mitral or aortic stenosis is reduced. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Miscellaneous, Subject name: Pediatrics | A female child of a mother is diagnosed to have Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. What risk does the mother have for her next male child to suffer from similar illness?
Select and explain.
A. 25%, B. 50%, C. 100%, D. 0% | B: 50% | Answer: B: 50%
Explanation: (B) 50% # Duchenne muscular dystrophy is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern.> Male children, who have an XY chromosome pair, receive one of their mother's two X chromosomes and their father's Y chromo- some. Women DMD carriers who have an abnormal X chromosome have a one-in-two chance of passing that abnormality on to their male children.> Unlike most female children, a male child with an inherited defective Xp21 gene does not have a second X chromosome to provide correct genetic instructions, and the disease manifests.> Sons of carrier females each have a 50% chance of having the disease, and the daughters each have a 50% chance of being carriers.> Daughters of men with Duchenne will always be carriers, since they will inherit an affected X chromosome from their father (note that the diagram only shows the results from an unaffected father).> Some females will also have very mild degrees of muscular dystrophy, and this is known as being a manifesting carrier. In one-third of the cases, the disease is a result of an unspontaneous or new mutation. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: G.I.T, Subject name: Anatomy | On 7th postoperative day after laparoscopic cholecystectomy, patient developed right upper abdominal pain and 10 cm*8cm collection. Treatment consists of
Select and explain.
A. Immediate laparotomy, B. Percutaneous drainage, C. Laparotomy and surgical exploration of bile duct and T-tube inseion, D. Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy | B: Percutaneous drainage | Answer: B: Percutaneous drainage
Explanation: Goals of therapy in Iatrogenic bile duct injury Control of infection limiting inflammation: Parenteral antibiotics Percutaneous drainage of peripoal fluid collection Clear and thorough delineation of entire biliary anatomy MRCP/PTC ERCP (especially if cystic duct stump leak suspected) Re-establishment of biliary enteric continuity Tension free, mucosa - to-mucosa anastomosis Longterm transanastomotic stents if involving bifurcation of higher Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1503 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Immunology Pa 2 ( Hybridoma Technology, Complement Pathways, Interferon, Structure and Functions of Immune Cells ), Subject name: Microbiology | The function common to neutrophils, monocyte & macrophages is
Select and explain.
A. Immune response, B. Phagocytosis, C. Liberation of histamine, D. Destruction of old erythrocytes | B: Phagocytosis | Answer: B: Phagocytosis
Explanation: Neutrophils, monocyte & macrophages are the pa of phagocytosis not the pa of immunty. Cellular Components and Phagocytosis Therefore, phagocytes, present in the blood, lymphoid tissue, liver, spleen, lung, and other tissues, are the cells responsible for the uptake and removal of foreign antigen. Phagocytes include (1) monocytes and macrophages; (2) granulocytes, including neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils; and (3) dendritic cells. Histamine is released by mast cells . Destruction of old erythrocytes is by splenic tissue. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | Propranolol, a non–selective beta blocker can be prescribed to decrease anxiety associated with:
Select and explain.
A. Chronic neurotic disorder, B. Schizophrenia, C. Short term stressful situations, D. Endogenous depression | C: Short term stressful situations | Answer: C: Short term stressful situations
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Virology, Subject name: Microbiology | All are true about poliovirus, except:
Select and explain.
A. Type 1 is responsible for most epidemics, B. Very difficult to eliminate type 1, C. Type 1 is responsible for vaccine paralytic poliomyelitis, D. Type 1 most commonly responsible with paralysis | C: Type 1 is responsible for vaccine paralytic poliomyelitis | Answer: C: Type 1 is responsible for vaccine paralytic poliomyelitis
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Type 1 is responsible for vaccine paralytic poliomyelitis PandcVDPVFactSheet-Feb2015.pdfReference:Sabin strain type 1,2,3 are associated with Vaccine - associated paralytic polio (VAPP) and Vaccine derived poliovirus (VDPV). |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Who gave the concept of "Clean tooth never Decays"?
Select and explain.
A. Pierre fauchard, B. Leon Williams, C. Rihanna, D. Dean | B: Leon Williams | Answer: B: Leon Williams
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pathology | The patient with the following show the maximum deposits of lipofuscin in -
Select and explain.
A. Gaucher's disease, B. Tay sach's disease, C. Acute Enteric fever, D. Severe malnutrition | D: Severe malnutrition | Answer: D: Severe malnutrition
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Severe malnutrition |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | One criteria for prudent diet?
Select and explain.
A. Fat intake 35-40% of total energy, B. Dietary cholesterole < 300 mg/1000Kcal per day, C. Salt intake <10 g/day, D. Saturated futs < 10% of total energy | D: Saturated futs < 10% of total energy | Answer: D: Saturated futs < 10% of total energy
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Saturated fats < 10% of total energy Dietary goals prescribed by WHO expe committee prudent diet 3 Dietary modification is the principal preventive strategy in the prevention of CHD. The WHO Expe Committee (1) considered the following dietary changes to be appropriate for high incidence populations. Reduction of fat intake to 20-30 percent of total energy intake Consumption of saturated fats must be limited to less than 10 percent of total energy intake, some of the reduction in saturated fat may be made up by mono and poly-unsaturated fats. A reduction of dietary cholesterol to below 100 mg per 1000 kcal per day. An increase in complex carbohydrate consumption (i.e. vegetables, fruits, whole grains and legumes) Avoidance of alcohol consumption, reduction of salt intake to 5 g daily or less. Other specific interventions as pa of primordial prevention of coronary hea disease To achieve a smoke free society Reduction of Blood pressure through prudent diet. Regular exercise, weight control & cessation of smoking. Regular Physical Activity. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Degenerative Disorders, Subject name: Psychiatry | Neurotransmitter playing major part in the pathogenesis of Alzheimer's disease -
Select and explain.
A. Serotonine, B. Norepinephrine, C. Acetylcholine, D. Dopamine | C: Acetylcholine | Answer: C: Acetylcholine
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Acetylcholine Neurotransmitters in Alzheimer's diseaseo Acetylcholine has a major role in memory functions and deficiency in cholinergic functioning is associated with memory disturbances particularly short term memory. In Alzheimer's disease there loss of cells in the nucleus basalis of meyernet results in marked reduction in choline acetyltransferase (CHAT), an enzyme involved in the synthesis of acetylcholine - Decreased Acetylcholine.o The other important neurotransmitter involved is norepinephrine - There is decrease in nor-epinephrine containing neurons in the locus ceruleus.o Two other neuroactive peptides have been implicated in AD - Somatostatin and corticotropin, both of which have decreased concentration. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Surgery | Which of the following affects the wound healing most:
Select and explain.
A. Cortisol, B. Growth hormone, C. Thyroxin, D. Adrenaline | A: Cortisol | Answer: A: Cortisol
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Microbiology | Rapid examination of Tubercle bacilli is possible with?
Select and explain.
A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain, B. Kin young stain, C. Auramine-Rhodamine stain, D. Giemsa stain | C: Auramine-Rhodamine stain | Answer: C: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Auramine Rhodamine stain |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Virology Pa-2 (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses), Subject name: Microbiology | Negri bodies are characteristic of
Select and explain.
A. Measles, B. Tetanus, C. HIV/AIDS, D. Rabies | D: Rabies | Answer: D: Rabies
Explanation: Negri bodies are the inclusion bodies of the rabies virus formed in brain cells most commonly found in cerebellum (purkinje cells). Inclusion bodies are nuclear or cytoplasmic aggregates of stable substances, usually proteins. They typically represent sites of viral multiplication in a bacterium or a eukaryotic cell and usually consist of viral capsid proteins. Microscopic features of few disease:- Disease Microscopic feature Measles Wahin Finkeldy cells Rabies Negri bodies Trachoma Halbester Prowazek bodies Tetanus is a bacterial disease- caused by Cl. tetani, no inclusion bodies are seen. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Twin Pregnancy, Molar Pregnancy, Gestational Trophoblastic disease and contraception in special situations (Sour Grapes!), Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | A 27 years old patient with 20 weeks sized uterus presented with vesicular mole. Treatment is:
Select and explain.
A. Induction of labor, B. Methotrexate, C. Hysterotomy, D. Suction evacuation | D: Suction evacuation | Answer: D: Suction evacuation
Explanation: Suction evacuation is the treatment of choice for hydatidiform mole, regardless of uterine size. Follow this, with a gentle curettage. b-HCG estimation weekly till negative: Values come to negative bya) 9 Weeks in a Complete moleb) 7 Weeks in an incomplete mole |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Bacteriology, Subject name: Microbiology | Which of the following organism is identified by interferon
Select and explain.
A. Staphylococcus, B. Leptospira, C. Campylobacter, D. Tuberculosis | D: Tuberculosis | Answer: D: Tuberculosis
Explanation: Interferon-gamma release assay: This test uses Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen CFP10 which reacts with T-lymphocytes of the patient to release gamma interferon. This test is not very specific for pulmonary tuberculosis, hence is not recommended any longer. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg: 360 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Microbiology | Triple sugar iron agar showing gas production with red slant and yellow butt. The organism cultured is ?
Select and explain.
A. E coli, B. Shigella flexneri, C. Pseudomonas, D. None | B: Shigella flexneri | Answer: B: Shigella flexneri
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Shigella flexneri |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Endocrinology, Subject name: Pharmacology | Drug of choice for pregnant female suspected of having a baby with congenital adrenal hyperplasia is
Select and explain.
A. Dexamethasone, B. Betamethasone, C. Hydrocoisone, D. Predinsolone | A: Dexamethasone | Answer: A: Dexamethasone
Explanation: Dexamethasone is very potent and highly selective glucocoicoid to be staed before 10 weeks of gestation to suppress fetal androgen production effectively It has a long duration of action and cause marked pituitary-adrenal suppression. DOC for CAH is hydrocoisone but DOC for pregnant women having baby with CAH - dexamethasone REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 283 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Mycology, Subject name: Microbiology | Which is false about Penicillium marneffi?
Select and explain.
A. Black colonies, B. Dimorphic fungi, C. Amphotericin B used for treatment, D. Causes fulminant infections in immunocompromised patients | A: Black colonies | Answer: A: Black colonies
Explanation: Penicillium Marneffei: It is the only dimorphic fungus in the genus Penicillium. Causes oppounistic infection (fulminant) in immunocompromised hosts, such as patients with HIV. Lab Diagnosis: - Direct Microscopy: Shows oval or elliptical yeast cells with central septation, which indicates that these cells divide by transverse fission rather than budding - Culture: P. marneffei produces yeast like colonies at 37degC and mould form at 25degC. The mould form has a characteristic diffusible brick red pigment. Treatment: AIDS patients with severe penicillinosis are treated with amphotericin B till the condition improves followed by maintenance therapy with itraconazole for 12 weeks. In mild penicilliosis, itraconazole is recommended for 12 weeks. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Which of the following can be viewed on a conventional radiograph?
Select and explain.
A. Buccal curvature of roots, B. Gingival fibers, C. Calcification of canals, D. Periodontal ligament | C: Calcification of canals | Answer: C: Calcification of canals
Explanation: Calcification of canals. Buccal curvature cannot be seen from the conventional radiographs. Gingival fibers and the periodontal ligament, being connective tissues, are radiolucent radiographically. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | All are steroids except ?
Select and explain.
A. Testosterone, B. Vitamin D, C. Cholesterol, D. Thyroxine | D: Thyroxine | Answer: D: Thyroxine
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thyroxine Steroids Steroids are complex molecules consisting of four fused carbon rings. There is a phenanthrene nucleus made of three six-membered rings (A,B,C, rings), and a cyclopentane which forms D ring. The fully saturated parent compound (steroid) is known as cyclopentanoperhydrophenathrene. The alcohol derivatives of steroids, in which one or more OH groups are present in the steroids nucleus, are termed sterols, i.e. sterols are a class of steroids containing hydroxy (OH) group. Cholesterol, ergosterol, coprosterol and sitosterol are some impoant sterols.In animal tissues, Cholesterol is the major sterol. Functionally, cholesterol is a very impoant molecule being precursor of a variety of steroids -Steroid hormones :- Progesterone, estrogen, androgens (Testosterone), glucocoicoids, mineralocoicoids.Bile acids:- Cholic acid, Chenodeoxycholic acid.Vitamin DSo, all above mentioned compounds have cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene nucleus. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Dental | Age was found to be a factor affecting the relation of diabetes mellitus and periodontics
Select and explain.
A. Sampling Bias, B. Selection Bias, C. Confounding Bias, D. Information Bias | C: Confounding Bias | Answer: C: Confounding Bias
Explanation: None |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Mendelian Disorders: Single-Gene Defects, Subject name: Pathology | In marfan syndrome, the defect is in -
Select and explain.
A. Fibrillin I, B. Fibrillin II, C. Collegen, D. Elastin | A: Fibrillin I | Answer: A: Fibrillin I
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fibrillin I Marfan syndromeo Marfan syndrome results from inherited defect in an extracellular glycoprotein fibrillin - 1 on chromosome -15.o It has autosomal dominant inheritance,o Pathogenesiso Defect in fibrillin affects the elastic recoil of extracellular connective tissue.Elastic fibres consist of a central core made up of elastin, surronded by a peripheral network of microfibrils that consists largely fibrillin.Defect in fibrillin causes defective function of elastic fibres.Microfibrils (containing fibrillin) are mainly distributed to Aorta, ligaments of joint and ciliary zolules of lens - So, in marfan syndrome these tissues are primarily affected. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: General anatomy, Subject name: Anatomy | Which of the following is a compound condylar joint?
Select and explain.
A. Knee, B. TM joint, C. Wrist, D. Elbow | A: Knee | Answer: A: Knee
Explanation: Knee joint has more than two bones paicipating (hence Compound joint). It is formed by lateral and medial femorotibial and the femoropatellar joints It is Compound synol joint incorporating two condylar joints between the condyles of the femur and tibia and one saddle joint between the femur and the patella TM joint is a condylar joint but it involves only 2 bones( not a compound joint) Wrist joint is an ellipsoid synol joint and elbow is a hinge synol joint Ref: Gray's39e/p185-210 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Thyroid Gland, Subject name: Surgery | False about medullary cancer thyroid
Select and explain.
A. Secrete Calcitonin, B. 20-25% are familial, C. Diarrhea are seen in 30%, D. These cancers take up Radioactive Iodine | D: These cancers take up Radioactive Iodine | Answer: D: These cancers take up Radioactive Iodine
Explanation: Ans. (d) These cancers take up Radio iodineRef: Bailey and Love 27th Edition Page 820* Medullary thyroid cancers are not hormone dependent (Not TSH dependent)* They don't take up RAI* Differentiated thyroid Cancers - Papillary and follicular take up Radio active iodine and used in cases of treatment of high risk cases. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Medicine | A 15 year old female presents with primary amenorrhoea. Her breasts are Tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is :
Select and explain.
A. Turner's syndrome, B. Mullerian agensis, C. Testicular feminization syndrome, D. Premature ovarian failure | C: Testicular feminization syndrome | Answer: C: Testicular feminization syndrome
Explanation: Answer is C (Testicular feminization syndrome): Presence of well developed breast (tanner stage 4) with scanty axillary or pubic hair in a phenotypic 'female' with primary amenorrhea (? no uterus) suggests the diagnosis of Testicular feminization syndrome. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Miscellaneous, Subject name: Surgery | Patient underwent inguinal lymph node dissection and drain was placed. On 10th day severe bleeding occurs. What type of bleeding is this?
Select and explain.
A. Reactionary hemorrhage, B. Secondary, C. Primary, D. Tertiary | B: Secondary | Answer: B: Secondary
Explanation: Ans. (b) Secondary* Secondary hemorrhage is due to sloughing of wall of vessel. It usually occurs 7-14 days after injury and is precipitated by factors such as infection,pressure necrosis or malignancy. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: CLINICAL TRIALS, DRUG LABEL, Subject name: Pharmacology | Major aim of phase 1 clinical trials is to know the
Select and explain.
A. Safety, B. Efficacy, C. Maximum Tolerable Dose, D. Pharmacokinetics | C: Maximum Tolerable Dose | Answer: C: Maximum Tolerable Dose
Explanation: Phase I trial is designed as a dose-escalation study to determine the maximum tolerable dosage (MTD), that is, the maximum dose associated with an acceptable level of dose-limiting toxicity. Phase 1 Clinical Trials: The drug is tested in healthy human volunteers (extremes of ages ; elderly and children are excluded). As the drug is not tested in the patients, so we cannot determine efficacy in this phase. This is mainly for finding the maximum tolerable dose of the drug. This is first in human study. Because anti-cancer drugs can produce unacceptable toxicity and we cannot expose healthy humans to such a toxicity, the phase-1 trials for anticancer drugs are done in the patients |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: TCA Cycle, Subject name: Biochemistry | In which of the following step of TCA cycle, carbon dioxide is removed?
Select and explain.
A. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, B. Malate dehydrogenase, C. Succinate dehydrogenase, D. Fumarase | A: Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase | Answer: A: Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Explanation: Ans: a)Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase The two oxidative decarboxylation reactions of the TCA cycle are: 1. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 2. a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Biochemistry | Precursor for the synthesis of testosterone is:
Select and explain.
A. Aldosterone, B. Cholesterol, C. Pregnenolone, D. Cortisol | C: Pregnenolone | Answer: C: Pregnenolone
Explanation: Pregnenolone or Progesterone are the precursors for the synthesis of testosterone, aldosterone, estradiol and cortisol. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Blastocyte comes out on which day after feilization ?
Select and explain.
A. 4-7 days, B. 10-12 days, C. 12-15 days, D. 15-20 days | A: 4-7 days | Answer: A: 4-7 days
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., 4-7 days Free floating unimplanted blastocyst is seen on 4-5 days. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Microbiology | Which one of the following gram positive organism is most common cause of UTI among sexually active women-
Select and explain.
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis, B. Staphylococcus aureus, C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus, D. Enterococcus | C: Staphylococcus saprophyticus | Answer: C: Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Staphylococcus saprophyticus Staph saprophyticus . Staph saprophyticus may be present on normal human skin and the periurethral area and can cause urinary tract infection, paicularly in sexually active young women. . Staph saprophyticus strains causing UTI are usually sensitive to most antibiotics, except nalidixic acid. . Staph saprophyticus is novobiocin resistant. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Anatomy | The axillary sheath is an extension of this fascia around the subclan aery and brachial plexus. Fascia around nerve bundle of brachial plexus is derived from?
Select and explain.
A. Preveebral fascia, B. Pretracheal fascia, C. Investing layer, D. Superficial cervical fascia | A: Preveebral fascia | Answer: A: Preveebral fascia
Explanation: The brachial plexus and the subclan aery course between the anterior and middle scalene muscles, and as the nerve plexus and aery emerge from those muscles, they carry an extension of the preveebral fascia along to form the axillary sheath. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Confounding and Bias, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | Confounding factor is associated with:-
Select and explain.
A. Exposure only, B. Outcome only, C. Both exposure and outcome, D. Neither exposure nor outcome | C: Both exposure and outcome | Answer: C: Both exposure and outcome
Explanation: Confounding factor Any factor associated with both exposure, outcome and has an independent effect in causation of outcome is a confounder. BEST METHOD TO REMOVE CONFOUNDING:- MATCHING - Removes confounding bias by distributing known confounding factors equally in two groups RANDOMISATION(2ND BEST) RESTRICTION STRATIFICATION STATISTICAL MODELLING/ MULTIVARIATE ANALYSIS STRATIFIED RANDOMISATION (BEST METHOD) |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Genetics And Genetic Disorders, Subject name: Pediatrics | % of offsprings affected by colour blindness, of a healthy male and heterozygous female:
Select and explain.
A. None, B. 25%, C. 50%, D. 100% | B: 25% | Answer: B: 25%
Explanation: b. 25%(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 642; Ghai 8/e p 641)Color blindness is an X-linked recessive disorder.In X-linked disorders, if father is normal and mother is a carrier, 50% of children will inherit defective X chromosome.Out of these, the daughters (having 1 normal and 1 defective X chromosome) will act as carriersWhile, all sons, inheriting the defective X chromosome will be affected by colour blindness. Hence, 25% of children will be affected. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | Drug used for treatment of scorpian sting is -
Select and explain.
A. Adrenaline, B. Morphine, C. Captopril, D. Prazosin | D: Prazosin | Answer: D: Prazosin
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Prazosin Treatment of scorpian sting o Treatment after scorpian sting has two components :? A. Local o It includes; negative pressure extractor, compression wrap proximal to site of sting, local anaesthetic, local antiseptic, tetanus prophylaxis. B. Systemic o It includes: Maintenance of airway and circulation --> oxygen, intubation, strict hemodynamic monitoring Muscle relaxant (Phenobarbitone) If there is hyperdynamic cardiac changes --> P-blocker + a-blocker (Prazosin), nitrates If there is hypodynamic cardiac changes --> After load reduction by a-blocker (Prazosin), nifedipine, nitroprusside, hydralazine or ACE inhibitors. Dobutamine or norepinephrine can be used as last reso to correct hypotension refractory to fluid therapy. Diuretics for pulmonary edema. Insulin administration helps the vital organs to use metabolic substrate more efficiently. Atropine to counteract parasympathetic effects induced by venom. Antivenom is the treatment of choice after suppoive care is established. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Ear, Subject name: ENT | In the right middle ear pathology, Weber&;s test will be
Select and explain.
A. Centralized, B. Normal, C. Lateralized to right side, D. Lateralized to left side | C: Lateralized to right side | Answer: C: Lateralized to right side
Explanation: Weber test: In this test, a vibrating tuning fork is placed in the middle of the forehead or the veex and the patient is asked in which ear the sound is heard. Normally, it is heard equally in both ears. It is lateralized to the worse ear in conductive deafness and to the better ear in sensorineural deafness. In weber test, sound travels directly to the cochlea bone. Lateralization of sound in weber test with a tuning fork of 512 Hz implies a conductive loss of 15-25 dB in ipsilateral ear or a sensorineural loss in the contralateral ear. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-22 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Biological Materials & Stains, Subject name: Forensic Medicine | Lee Jones test is used for -
Select and explain.
A. Carbolic acid, B. Arsenic, C. Cyanide, D. Lead | C: Cyanide | Answer: C: Cyanide
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cyanide Lee Jones testo Few crystals of ferrous sulfate is added to 5 ml of the gastric content,o To it, 5 drops of sodium hydroxide is added,o The mixture is boiled and cooled,o To it, 10 drops of 10% hydrochloric acid is added.o Greenish blue colour indicates cyanide and purplish colour indicates salicylate. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Renal physiology, Subject name: Physiology | Type 1 glomus cell secrete neurotransmitter because of oxygen sensitive
Select and explain.
A. Na+ channel, B. Cl channel, C. Ca+2 channel, D. K+ channel | D: K+ channel | Answer: D: K+ channel
Explanation: Type I glomus cells have O2 sensitive K+ channels, whose conductance is reduced in propoion to the degree of hypoxia to which they are exposed. This reduces the K+ efflux, depolarizing the cell and causing Ca2+ influx, primarily L-type Ca2+ channels. The Ca2+ influx triggers action potentials and transmitter release, with consequent excitation. of the afferent nerve endings. The smooth muscle of pulmonary aeries contains similar O2-sensitive K+ channels, which mediate the vasoconstriction caused by hypoxia. This is in contrast to systemic aeries, which contain adenosine triphosphate (ATP) dependent K+ channels that permit more K+ efflux with hypoxia and consequently cause vasodilation instead of vasoconstriction. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 23rd edition, page no: 628, 629 Ref image: |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pediatrics | Most common complication of meningitis in children is –
Select and explain.
A. Hearing loss, B. Seizures, C. Hydrocephalus, D. Mitral regurgitation | B: Seizures | Answer: B: Seizures
Explanation: Complications of meningitis in children
Seizure is the commonest complication of meningitis in children.
It occurs in about 30% of patients.
Other common complications of meningitis.
Subdural empyema or effusions — It is commonly seen after meningitis with H. Influenza.
rain Abscesses
Neurological impairment → Hemiplegia, Aphasia, Mental retardation, blindness.
Auditory impairment (sensor neural deafness)
Hydrocephalus
Ventriculitis, Arachnoidits
Cranial nerve palsies
Thrombosis of ducal venous sinuses
Transverse myelitis
Systemic complication - Shock, Myocarditis, Status epilepticus, Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Arterial Disorders, Subject name: Surgery | A 66-year-old woman has a 5.5-cm infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm. What is the most common manifestation of such an aneurysm?
Select and explain.
A. Abdominal or back pain, B. Acute leak or rupture, C. Incidental finding on abdominal examination, D. Atheroembolism | C: Incidental finding on abdominal examination | Answer: C: Incidental finding on abdominal examination
Explanation: Most patients are unaware of their abdominal aneurysm until it is incidentally discovered by their physician. The importance of careful deep palpation of the abdomen cannot be overemphasized. On occasion, these aneurysms may expand, causing abdominal or back pain, and may even leak or rupture, mimicking other acute intra-abdominal conditions. Signs and symptoms of acute ischemia in the lower extremities are rare and usually follow thrombosis or embolization from an abdominal aneurysm. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Unknown | Amniotic fluid is maximum at what gestational age-
Select and explain.
A. 12 weeks, B. 20 weeks, C. 36 weeks, D. 40 weeks | C: 36 weeks | Answer: C: 36 weeks
Explanation: Ans-C i.e., 36 weeks o Amniotic fluid volume is related to gestational age. It measures 50 ml at 12 weeks, 400 ml at 20 weeks and reaches its peak of 1 litre at 36 - 38 weeks of gestation. Thereafter the amount diminishes, till at term it measures about 600 - 800 ml. As the pregnancy continues post-term, further reduction occurs to the extent of about 200 ml at 43 weeks. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Metabolism of lipid, Subject name: Biochemistry | The main apolipoprotein of LDL is
Select and explain.
A. A-II, B. B-48, C. B-100, D. E | C: B-100 | Answer: C: B-100
Explanation: The major apolipoproteins of HDL (a-lipoprotein) are apoAs. The main apolipoprotein of LDL (b-lipoprotein) is apo B (B-100), which is found also in VLDL. Chylomicrons contain a truncated form of apo B (B-48) that is synthesized in the intestine, while B-100 is synthesized in the liver. Apo E, found in VLDL, HDL, chylomicrons, and chylomicron remnants, is also freely transferable. Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 255 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Pharmacology | Wolff-chaikoff effect is ?
Select and explain.
A. Reduced thyroxine synthesis by radiotherapy, B. Reduced thyroxine synthesis by propylthiouracil, C. Reduced thyroxine synthesis by iodides, D. None of the above | C: Reduced thyroxine synthesis by iodides | Answer: C: Reduced thyroxine synthesis by iodides
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Reduced thyroxine synthesis by iodides Iodine and Iodides Iodine is the fastest acting thyroid inhibitor. Most impoant action is inhibition of hormone release (thyroid constipation); but all facets of thyroid synthesis may be affected. Excess iodide inhibits its own transpo in thyroid cells and may alter the redox potential of cells, thus interfering iodination -reduced TIT3 synthesis ( Wolffichaikoff effect). |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: General anatomy, Subject name: Anatomy | Cause of odema
Select and explain.
A. Decreased plasma protein concentration, B. Increased lymph flow, C. Increased ECF, D. Increased plasma proteins concentration | A: Decreased plasma protein concentration | Answer: A: Decreased plasma protein concentration
Explanation: Ref.robbins 8/e 112; 7/e 120- 121;9/e p114 Capillary blood contains a decreased quantity of colloids (protein-white circles) due to either decreased hepatic synthesis of these proteins or increased protein loss through the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. ... With decreased production of albumin the plasma colloidal osmotic pressure decreases and edema occurs. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Obstetrics, Subject name: Social & Preventive Medicine | Elemental iron and folic acid in adult IFA table is -
Select and explain.
A. 100 mg iron & 200 mg FA, B. 200 mg iron & 100 mg FA, C. 20 mg iron & 100 mg FA, D. 100 mg iron & 500 mg FA | D: 100 mg iron & 500 mg FA | Answer: D: 100 mg iron & 500 mg FA
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., 100 pg iron & 500 jag FA o Iron and Folic Acid content per I FA tablet# Adult tablet: 100 mg elemental iron and 500 meg folic acid.# Pediatric tablet: 20 mg elemental iron and 100 meg folic acid. |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: All India exam, Subject name: Ophthalmology | Esotrotropia is most commonly associated with
Select and explain.
A. Hyperopia, B. Myopia, C. presbyopia, D. Astigmatism | A: Hyperopia | Answer: A: Hyperopia
Explanation: Near vision impaired they try to compensate by increasing their accomodation Infants are hyperopic by 2.5 D they are esotropic at bih ref : ak khurana 7th ed |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: Cardio thoracic surgery , Subject name: Anatomy | A young man with pulmonary tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment, which vascular structure should be evaluated first -
Select and explain.
A. Pulmonary vein, B. Pulmonary aery, C. Bronchial aery, D. Superior vena cava | C: Bronchial aery | Answer: C: Bronchial aery
Explanation: Massive Hemoptysis Hemoptysis of >200-600cc in 24 hours. Massive Hemoptysis should be considered as a medical emergency Treatment Large-volume, life threatening Hemoptysis generally require immediate intervention regardless of the cause The first step is to establish a patent airway usually by endotracheal intubation and subsequent mechanical ventilation As most large - volume Hemoptysis Arises from an airway lesion, it is ideal if the site of the bleeding can be identified either by chest imaging or bronchoscopy (more commonly rigid than flexible) If bleeding doesnot stop with therapies of the underlying cause and passage of time, severe Hemoptysis from bronchial aeries can be treated with angiogrophic embolization of the culprit bronchial aery Bronchial aery are the major source of Hemoptysis Ref: Grainger Radiology 4th edition Pgno : 609 |
This is a real-world medical entrance exam question, please give the true answer based on the question and selection. Topic name: None, Subject name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Characteristic problem in females taking Norethisterone is :
Select and explain.
A. Irregular bleeding, B. Thromboembolism, C. Hirsutism, D. Weight gain | A: Irregular bleeding | Answer: A: Irregular bleeding
Explanation: Ans. is a i.e. Irregular bleeding Nor-ethisterone acetate is commonly used as an injectable steroid - 'NET-EN' It is a progesterone based contraceptive like DMPA and its side effect are similar to those of DMPA. The most frequent side effect is irregular bleeding. NET-EN is given in doses of 200 mg at 2 monthly interval. Composition Features Lunelle/cyclofem 25mg DMPA + 5mg estradiol cypionate Mesigyna 4g 50 mg NET-EN + 5mg estradiol valerate ed - menstrual irregularities Rapidly reversible Monthly injection Inhibits lactation Rapid return of feility Monthly injection same as lunelle Extra Edge : Combined injectable contraceptive. |