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Which of the following is freely filtered by kidney across glomerular capillariesa) Albumin (across glomerular capillaries)b) Globulinc) Creatinined) HCO3 e) Glucose: (A) cde, (B) acd, (C) bde, (D) ade

Answer is A. Freely filterable substances by glomerulus -        Water -        Na+ -        Cl- -        HCO3- -        Inulin -        Glucose -        Creatinine   -        Free Calcium or phosphate

Antibodies associated with GTCS in SLE :: (A) Anti neuronal ab, (B) Anti-Ro ab, (C) Anti-Sm ab, (D) None

Answer is A. Ans.A Anti neuronal ab (Ref: Harrison's Internal medicine 18th/Table 319-1; 17th edition, P. 2076). Autoantibodies in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) Antibody Prevalence, % Antigen Recognized Clinical Utility Antinuclear antibodies 98 Multiple nuclear Best screening test; repeated negative tests make SLE unlikely Anti-dsDNA 70 DNA (double-stranded) High titers are SLE-specific and in some patients correlate with disease activity, Anti-Sm 25 Protein complexed to 6 species of nuclear U1 RNA Specific for SLE; no definite clinical correlations; most patients also have anti Anti-RNP 40 Protein complexed to U1 RNA Not specific for SLE; high titers associated with syndromes that have overlap blacks than whites Anti-Ro (SS-A) 30 Protein complexed to hY RNA, primarily 60 kDa and 52 kDa Not specific for SLE; associated with sicca syndrome, predisposes to subacute cutaneous with decreased risk for nephritis Anti-La (SS-B) 10 47-kDa protein complexed to hY RNA Usually associated with anti-Ro; associated with decreased risk for nephritis Antihistone 70 Histones associated with DNA (in the nucleosome, chromatin) More frequent in drug-induced lupus than in SLE Antiphospholipid 50 Phospholipids, 2 glycoproteins 1 cofactor, prothrombin Three tests available ELISAs for cardiolipin and 2G1, sensitive prothrombin Antierythrocyte 60 Erythrocyte membrane Measured as direct Coombs' test; a small proportion develops overt hemolysis Antiplatelet 30 Surface and altered cytoplasmic antigens on platelets Associated with thrombocytopenia but sensitivity and specificity are not good; Antineuronal (includes anti-glutamate receptor) 60 Neuronal and lymphocyte surface antigens In some series a positive test in CSF correlates with active CNS lupus. Antiribosomal P 20 Protein in ribosomes In some series a positive test in serum correlates with depression or psychosis Also remember: Antibody Best screening test for Antibody ANA SLE Anti-Histone Drug-induced lupus Antinuclear antibodies SLE, nonspecific Anti-dsDNA; Anti-Sm Specific for SLE Anti-sm (Nelson's Paediatric Textbook) Marker of CNS lupus Anti-DNA Level of which correlates with disease activity Anti-Ro (SS-A) SACL, neonatal lupus Anti-Ro and Anti-La ie risk of nephritis (protective against nephritis) Antiphospholipid Hematological and Fetal Loss Antiribosomal protein Depression and Psychosis Anti-basement membrane Goodpasture syndrome Anticardiolipin, lupus anticoagulant SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome Anticentromere Limited scleroderma (CREST syndrome) Anti--Scl--70 (anti--DNA topoisomerase 1) Scleroderma (diffuse) Anti--SSA, anti--SSB (anti-Ro, anti--La) Sjogren syndrome Anti--Jo--1, anti--SRP, anti--Mi--2 Polymyositis, dermatomyositis Anti--TSH receptor Graves disease Anti--U1RNP (ribonucleoprotein) Mixed connective tissue disease c-ANCA (PR3-ANCA) Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener) IgA antiendomysial, IgA anti--tissue transglutaminase Celiac disease p-ANCA (MPO--ANCA) Microscopic polyangiitis, Churg--*JStrauss syndrome Anti--ACh receptor Myasthenia gravis Rheumatoid factor (antibody, most commonly IgM, specific to IgG Fc region), anti--CCP Rheumatoid arthritis Anti--glutamate decarboxylase Type 1 diabetes mellitus Anti--desmoglein Pemphigus vulgaris Anti--hemidesmosome Bullous pemphigoid Antimicrosomal, antithyroglobulin Hashimoto thyroiditis Antimitochondria! 1*< biliary cirrhosis Anti--smooth muscle Autoimmune hepatitis ALSO KNOW: LE cells Neutrophils with LE bodies seen in SLE, RA Penicillamine drug induced Hematoxilin bodies SLE endocarditis (Libmann-Sack) 'Wire-loop' lesions SLE type IV nephritis

Tonsillar fossa is bounded anteriorly by: (A) Pharyngobasilar fascia, (B) Palatopharyngeal fold, (C) Buccopharyngeal fascia, (D) Palatoglossal fold

Answer is D. Tonsilar fossa is bounded by Anterior - Palatoglossal fold containing palatoglossal muscle Posterior - Palatopharyngeal fold containing palato pharyngeal muscle Apex - Soft palate, where both arches meet Base - Dorsal surface of posterior one-third of tongue. (Ref: Anatomy of head, neck and brain. Vishram Singh. P 227 )

"Castration anxiety" is seen in which phase of Sigmond Freud's psychosexual stages of development: (A) Oral, (B) Anal, (C) Phallic, (D) Genital

Answer is C. Phallic phase (3-5years): Male child develops Oedipus complex (sexual feeling towards mother) and will be afraid that father may castrate him for this termed as "Castration anxiety".

Shock causes:: (A) Stagnant hypoxia, (B) Anemic hypoxia, (C) Hypoxic hypoxia, (D) Histotoxic hypoxia

Answer is A. Ans: A (Stagnant hypoxia)Ref: Pat GK, Hypoxia and Oxygen Therapy, In: Textbook of Medical Physiology, 2nd ed, Abuja Publishing House 2011: 94: 754-55Explanation:Refer the explanation of previous question

Two or more parallel vertical surfaces of abutment teeth shaped to direct the prosthesis during placement and removal, are known as:: (A) Orientation plane, (B) Parallel block out, (C) Survey lines, (D) Guiding planes

Answer is D. None

Calcium silicate based material is:: (A) MTA, (B) Geristore, (C) Dieket, (D) Retroplast

Answer is A. Mineral trioxide aggregate was developed by Dr Torabinejad in 1993.  It contains tricalcium silicate, dicalcium silicate, tricalcium aluminate, bismuth oxide, calcium sulfate and tetracalcium aluminoferrite. pH of MTA is 12.5. Textbook of Endodontics Nisha Garg 3rd Ed

Which of the following statements about Total Infra–Venous Anaesthesia (TIVA) is true –: (A) Causes More Renal Toxicity, (B) Reduces Cerebral Metabolic Rate, (C) Risk of Malignant Hyperthermia is high, (D) Inhibits Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasconstriction

Answer is B. Total intravenous anaesthesia refers to a technique in general anaesthesia using a compination of agents given solely by IV route and in the absence of all inhalation agents. TIVA (Total intravenous anaesthesia) is produced by IV propoful. Propofol decreases the cerebral metabolic rate. Propofol does not impair renal function, does not trigger malignant hyperthermia and does not inhibit hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction.

In Profound MR, IQ is: (A) 50-69, (B) 35-49, (C) 20-34, (D) < 20

Answer is D. IQ range for categoriesICD-10DSM-IVMild50-6950-55 to 70Moderate35-4935-40 to 50-55Severe20-3420-25 to 35-40ProfoundBelow 20Below 20-25Reference: Oxford Textbook of Psychiatry; 3rd edition; Chapter 18; Learning Disability

Which of the following iodinated compound is present in a maximum concentration in the thyroid?: (A) Monoiodotyrosine (MIT), (B) Diiodotyrosine (DIT), (C) T3, (D) Reverse T3

Answer is B. THYROID HORMONE SYNTHESIS AND SECRETIONThyroid hormones are synthesized in the colloid, near the apical cell membrane of the follicular cells. Catalyzed by the enzyme thyroidal peroxidase, iodide in the thyroid cell is oxidized to iodine.The iodine enters the colloid and is rapidly bound at the 3 position to tyrosine molecules attached to thyroglobulin, forming monoiodotyrosine (MIT).MIT is next iodinated at the 5 position, forming diiodotyrosine (DIT).Two DIT molecules then condense in an oxidative process ("coupling reaction") to form one thyroxine (T4) molecule.Some T3 is probably formed within the thyroid gland by condensation of MIT with DIT. A small amount of reverse T3 (rT3) is also formed.In the normal thyroid, the average distribution of iodinated compounds is 23% MIT, 33% DIT, 35% T4, 7% T3, and 2% reverse T3.

Silicosis caused by ?: (A) Gold, (B) Coal, (C) CO, (D) Silica

Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Silica

Human development index includes -: (A) Crude death rate, (B) Life expectancy at one year, (C) Life expectancy at bih, (D) All

Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Life expectancy at bih According to 22nd/e of Park, options 'd & e' are not the components of HDI. o Expected years of schooling (not adult literacy rate) and GNI per capita (not GDP) are the components of HDI.

One of the constituents of the commonly used metered dose inhalers in bronchial asthma which is an air pollutant & dangerous to earth's stratosphere is -: (A) Flurocarbons, (B) Salbutamol, (C) Ozone, (D) Oxygen

Answer is A. None

H. capsulatum, a dimorphic fungus, is found in soil heavily contaminated with bird droppings. Which of the following statements best describes the presence of the organism in tissue biopsies?: (A) Yeasts with broad-based bud, (B) Single-cell yeasts with pseudohyphae, (C) Arthrospores, (D) Oval budding yeasts inside macrophages

Answer is D. Histoplasma capsulatum is a dimorphic fungus that forms two types of spores: tuberculate macroconidia and microconidia. Inhalation of the microconidia transmits infection. Inhaled spores (microconidia) are engulfed by macrophages and develop into yeast forms. Most infections remain asymptomatic; small granulomatous foci heal by calcification. However, pneumonia can occur. The heterophile antibody test is useful for early diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis. The figure below illustrates the oval budding yeasts.

Budding reproduction in tissue is seen in: (A) Cryptococcus, candida, (B) Candida, rhizopus, (C) Rhizopus, mucor, (D) Histoplasma, candida

Answer is A. Cryptococcus is a yeast, candida is a yeast-like fungus. Both are reproduced by budding Histoplasma is a dimorphic fungus Mucor and Rhizopus are produced by asexual means sporangiospores Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition

True about polio:: (A) Paralytic polio is most common, (B) Spastic paralysis seen, (C) IM injections and increased muscular activity lead to increased paralysis, (D) Polio drops in pulse polio immunisation given only in <3 years old children

Answer is C. False 90-95% of polio infections are asymptomatic False Acute flaccid paralysis is seen in Polio & not spastic paralysis True Risk of paralytic polio is increased by tonsillectomy, strenous physical exercise, tooth extraction,Injection (intramuscular) False OPV drops are given to all children less than 5 yr age in pulse polio immunisation

The retention of dowel in a pin retained crown is increased by: (A) Increased length, smooth surface and increased taper., (B) Increased length, serrated surface and increased taper., (C) Increased length, smooth surface and parallel sides., (D) Increased length, serrated surface and parallel sides.

Answer is D. Post should be at least 2/3 the root length, parallel sided and serrated for increased retention in the canal

Which of the following drugs can be administered by subcutaneous route?: (A) Albuterol, (B) Metaproterenol, (C) Terbutaline, (D) Pirbuterol

Answer is C. terbutaline can be given as s.c (0.25mg) in asthma.

Mycosis fungoides which is not true:: (A) It is the most common form of cutaneous lymphoma., (B) Pautriers microabscess., (C) Indolent course and easily amenable to treatment., (D) Erythroderma seen and spreads to peripheral.

Answer is C. Mycosis Fungoides: Mycosis fungoides is synonymous with Cutaneous T cell lymphoma.

Bacterial pyogenic parotitis affecting the parotid gland is most common after: March 2008: (A) Uveo-parotid fever, (B) Mumps, (C) Debilitation after major surgery, (D) After administration of iodine

Answer is C. Ans. C: Debilitation after major surgery Acute bacterial parotitis is now infrequent, but its historical impoance. Mumps and bacterial parotitis were differentiated by 1800, but neither was effectively treated. The moality rate for bacterial parotitis was 80%. Before antibiotics and intravenous administration of fluids were available, bacterial parotitis occurred in postoperative patients or other severely ill patients who became dehydrated and contributed to their demise as an incurable sepsis.

Patient diagnosed as squamous cell intraepithelial lesion which of the following has the highest risk for progression to carcinoma;: (A) Low grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, (B) High grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, (C) Squamous intraepithelial associated with HPV 16, (D) Squamous intraepithelial neoplasia associated with HIV

Answer is B. High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion have a propensity to progress and become invasive, therefore need investigations and treatment Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 410.

Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease features include:: (A) Can be diagnosed intrauterine, (B) Proceeds to renal failure till children reaches school going age, (C) Can be palpated abdominally, (D) Hypertension doesn't develop until late stages of the disease

Answer is A. Ans. A. Can be diagnosed intrauterineExplanationClinical features of ARPKD (Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease) are:Classic ARPKD is generally diagnosed in utero or within the neonatal period and characterized by greatly enlarged echogenic kidneys in diseased fetuses. (Option a)Reduced fetal urine production may contribute to oligohydramnios and pulmonary hypoplasia.About 30% of affected neonates die shortly after birth due to respiratory insufficiency. Close to 60% of mortality occurs within the first month of life.In the classic group, most patients are bom with renal insufficiency and ESRD (End stage renal disease). (Option b)However, infants often have a transient improvement in their GFR; death from renal insufficiency at this stage is rare.Some patients are diagnosed after the neonatal stage and form the older group. Morbidity and mortality in this group often involve systemic hypertension, progressive renal insufficiency, and liver manifestations.The hallmarks of ARPKD liver disease are biliary dysgenesis due to a primary ductal plate malformation with associated periportal fibrosis, namely congenital hepatic fibrosis (CHF) and dilatation of intrahepatic bile ducts (Caroli's disease). CHF and Caroli's disease can then lead to portal hypertension exhibiting hepatosplenomegaly, variceal bleeding, and cholangitis.Some patients with the diagnosis of ARPKD at 1 year of age with nephromegaly exhibit slowly declining renal function over 20 years with only minimally enlarged kidneys at ESRD (Option c and e) and markedly atrophic kidneys following renal transplantation.The slow progression of renal disease is likely due to increasing fibrosis rather than the development of cysts.Systemic hypertension is common in all ARPKD patients, even those with normal renal function. (option d)

You are the medical officer in charge of the immunisation programme at a sub-centre and you are informed by the local ASHA worker that one of the children who was immunised has has been dizzy. On fuher investigation it was confirmed that the symptoms were due to anxiety of pain of the injection and not as a result of the vaccine. You would consider the incidence as:: (A) Vaccine reaction, (B) Injection reaction, (C) Programme error, (D) Coincidental

Answer is B. The following are the adverse effect following immunisation: Vaccine reaction - Here the event is caused by the inherent propeies of the vaccine when given correctly. Programme error - In this case the event is as a result of error in preparation, handling or administration of the vaccine. Coincidental - The event after immunisation is not caused by the vaccine but by a chance association. Injection reaction - The anxiety of the pain an injection itself may cause hyperventilation, dizziness etc. This is not a result of the vaccine and is called injection reaction. Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 103, 107.

Bicipital aponeurosis lies over which structure in cubital fossa:-: (A) Median cubital vein, (B) Radial nerve, (C) Brachial aery, (D) Anterior interosseous aery

Answer is C. Bicipital aponeurosis lies superficial to the brachial aery and median nerve. -lies deep to superficial veins. -provides protection for the deeper structures during venepuncture at cubital fossa. -routinely released to decompress the median nerve

Postponing paying attention of conscious impulse or conflict is a mature defence mechanism known as -: (A) Sublimation, (B) Suppression, (C) Humor, (D) Anticipation

Answer is B. Suppression is pushing of unwanted feelings into unconscious which has reached conscious awareness.

The commonest site of perforation during colonoscopy is -: (A) Caecum, (B) Hepatic flexure, (C) Splenic flexure, (D) Sigmoid colon

Answer is D. • Risks of colonoscopy: Perforation and hemorrhage • MC site of bleeding after colonoscopy: Stalk after polypectomy. • MC site of perforation during colonoscopy: Sigmoid colon • Perforation can be caused by excessive air pressure, tearing of the antimesenteric border of the colon from excessive pressure on colonic loops, and at the sites of electrosurgical applications

A 74-year-old woman develops occipital headache, vomiting, and dizziness. She looks unwell, her blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 30/min. She is unable to sit or walk because of unsteadiness. Over the next few hours, she develops a decline in her level of consciousness.For the above patient with altered level of consciousness, select the most likely diagnosis.: (A) basal ganglia hemorrhage, (B) cerebellar hemorrhage, (C) pontine hemorrhage, (D) lobar intracerebral hemorrhage

Answer is B. Cerebellar hemorrhage, when mild, may present with only headache, vomiting, and ataxia of gait. Patients may complain of dizziness or vertigo. The eyes may be deviated to the side opposite the hemorrhage. Nystagmus is not common, but an ipsilateral sixth nerve palsy can occur. This is the only type of intracerebral hemorrhage that commonly benefits from surgical intervention.

Which is an uricosuric drug-: (A) Allopurinol, (B) Probenecid, (C) Indomethacin, (D) Aspirin

Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Probenecid Uricosuric drugs are probenacid, sulfinpyrazone and benzbromarone.

After an incised wound ,new collagen fibrils are seen along with a thick layer of growing epithelium.The approximate age of the wound is: (A) 4-5days, (B) About 1week, (C) 12-24hrs, (D) 24-48 hrs

Answer is A. Ref Robbins 9/e p106 Incised wound for the formation of collagen and new tissue, thick layer of epithelial ,and granulation tissue formation along with new blood vessels requires atleast 4_5 days

After delivery, a 28 year old pre ecclamptic primigra has a soft uterus with moderate-to-heavy bleeding. There is no laceration and there is PPH diagnosed due to uterine atony. Which of the following is the best management option?: (A) 0.2-mg intramuscular (IM) ergonovine (Methergine), (B) 20 units of IV oxytocin, (C) 10 units of oral oxytocin, (D) 250 mg prostaglandin F2-alpha orally

Answer is B. Ergot derivatives should not be given in patients with hypeension since this is classically known to increase blood pressure. A high BP may provoke a post paum ecclampsia Oxytocin is not orally effective . Prostaglandin F2-alpha is given IM.

Trendlenburg's test done for varicose veins is for detection of:: (A) Perforator in competency, (B) Deep veins patency, (C) Saphenofemoral incompetency, (D) Site of perforators

Answer is C. Ans: C (Saphenofemoral incompetency) Ref : 74 A Manual on Clinical Surgery S. DasExplanation:Clinical Examination of Varicose VeinsBrodie-Trendelenherg TestDone to determine the incompetency of Saphenofemoral valve.Patient is placed in recumbent position.Limbs are raised to empty the veins. Veins are milked proximally for further emptying.Saphenofemoral junction is compressed either with the thumb of the examiner/toumiquet and the patient is asked to stand up quickly.There are two variants of this test.The first method is to assess saphenofemoral incompetency. The pressure is released and if the column of blood fills up quickly from above downwards it indicates saphenofemoral incompetency.The second method is to assess the perforators. Here, the pressure is maintained for one minute. Gradual filling of the veins during this period indicates incompetent perforators allowing reflux of blood from deep veins to superficial veins.Positive Brodie--Trendelenberg test i~ an indication for surgery.Tests to Assess Saphenofemoral IncompetencyBrodie -Trendelenberg testMorrisey's cough impulse testTests to Assess Deep VeinsPerthe's testModified Perthe's testTests to Assess PerforatorsMultiple tourniquet testPratt's testFegan's testBrodie-Trendelenberg testTest to Assess V alves in Superficial VeinSchwartz testNote:Even though Brodie-Trendelenberg test is used to assess both saphenofemoral incompetency and incompetent perforators its primary purpose is to assess saphenofemoral incompetency.

Arrange the following 4 enzymes of gluconeogenesis in sequence: A. Pyruvate carboxylase B. Glucose - 6 - phosphatase C. Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxy kinase D. Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase: (A) D-C-A-B, (B) A-C-D-B, (C) B-A-D-C, (D) C-D-B-A

Answer is B. None

Specific poison for succinate dehydrogenase is ?: (A) Cyanide, (B) Malonate, (C) Arsenite, (D) Fluoride

Answer is B. B i.e. Malonate

Most common widespread zoonotic disease in the world is -: (A) Rabies, (B) Leptospirosis, (C) Brucella, (D) Anthrax

Answer is B. <p> Leptospirosis is the most wide zoonotic disease in the world. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:291. <\p>

Post operative muscle ache is caused by: (A) d-TC, (B) Suxamethonium, (C) Gallamine, (D) Pancuronium

Answer is B. None

Blood stained sputum may be the only symptom in?: (A) Bronchiectasis, (B) Carcinoma bronchus, (C) Adenoma bronchus, (D) Pulmonary T.B.

Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Adenoma bronchus

Inherited hyperammonemia is a result of deficiency of which enzyme of Krebs-Henseleit urea cycle?: (A) Malate dehydrogenase, (B) Isocitrate dehydrogenase, (C) N-acetyl glutamate synthetase, (D) Succinate dehydrogenase

Answer is C. Inherited hyperammonemias are a group of six diseases caused by inborn deficiencies of the enzymes of the Krebs-Henseleit urea cycle. The enzymes involved are: 1. N-acetyl glutamate synthetase 2. Arbamyl phosphate synthetase (CPS) 3. Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) 4. Argininosuccinic acid synthetase (citrullinemia) 5. Argininosuccinase deficiency 6. Arginase deficiency Most Severe Cases: In the most severe forms of the hyperammonemic disorders, the infants are asymptomatic at bih and during the first day or two of life, after which they refuse their feedings, vomit, and rapidly become inactive and lethargic, soon lapsing into an irreversible coma. Profuse sweating, focal or generalized seizures, rigidity with opisthotonos, hypothermia, and hyperventilation have been observed in the course of the illness. These symptoms constitute a medical emergency, but even with measures to reduce serum ammonia, the disease is usually fatal. Ref: Ropper A.H., Samuels M.A. (2009). Chapter 37. Inherited Metabolic Diseases of the Nervous System. In A.H. Ropper, M.A. Samuels (Eds), Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology, 9e.

Punishment for infanticide comes under -: (A) IPC102, (B) IPC324, (C) IPC302, (D) IPC300

Answer is C. Ref:Textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology (V.V.Pillay) 17th edition, page no.377 Infanticide refers to the deliberate killings of chlid below the age of one year.In England, Germany, UK, there is a clear-cut distinction between homicide and infanticides. In India, no such distinction exists, and accuse is punished under sec.302IPC,the same manner as in murder.

Carotid artery stenosis screening invivo choice is -: (A) USG, (B) CT, (C) MRI, (D) Doppler

Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Doppler o Color doppler ultrasonography is the screening method of choice (not simple USG : option a is incorrect),o Carotid angiography is the investigation of choice for diagnosis,o MRI is the investigation of choice for demyelinating disorder, e.g. multiple sclerosis.Investigations in nervous systemo Investigation of choice for white matter disease - MRI (CT is second choice),o Investigation of choice of acoustic neuroma - GD enhanced MRIo Best investigation for all brain tumors - Contrast enhanced MRIo Investigation of choice for meningeal carcinomatosis - Contrast (gadolinium) enhanced MRI.o Investigation of choice for posterior fossa tumor - MRIo Investigation of choice for para meningeal rhabdomyosarcoma - MRIo Investigation of choice for nasopharyngeal angiofibroma - Contrast enhanced CT.o Investigation of choice for hydrocephalus in older patients and for low pressure hydrocephalus - MRI.o Investigation of choice for acute (<48hrs) subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) - Non-Contrast CT scan,o Investivation of choice to know the etiology of SAH - Four vessels digital substruction angiography.o Hallmark of SAH - Blood in CSF on lumbar puncture,o Investigation of choice for chronic SAH - MRI.o Primary procedure of choice for evaluating intracranial complications of acute head injury - CT scan,o Best modality for assessing fractures of the skull base, calvarium and facial bone - CT scan,o Investigation of choice for demyelinating disorders MRI.o Investigation of choice for AV malformation and aneurysm - Angiography (MRI angiography or CT angiography),o Investigation of choice for Craniospinal infection - MRIo Investigation of choice for all intrinsic spinal cord lesions; all causes of cord compression - MRI.o Procedure of choice for emergent evaluation of acute intracerebral hemorrhage - CT scan,o Investigation of choice for myelopathy - MRI.o Shape of epidural hematomas on imaging - Biconvex, hyperdense or mixed density.o Shape of acute subdural hematoma on imaging - Crescent-shaped, hyperdense or mixed density ,o Chronic subdural hematoma on imaging - Hypodense.o Most sensitive test for ischaemic stroke - Diffusion weighted (DW) MRI.

Proposed guideline value for Radioactivity in drinking water is:: (A) Gross a activity 0.1 Bq/L and Gross b activity 1.0 Bq/L, (B) Gross a activity 1.0 Bq/L adn Gross b activity 0.1 Bq/L, (C) Gross a activity 1.0 Bq/L and Gross b activity 10.0 Bq/L, (D) Gross a activity 10 Bq/L and Gross b activity 1.0 Bq/L

Answer is A. Key guidelines aspects of WHO recommended drinking water quality: Colour <15 true colour units (TCU) Turbidity <1 nephlometric turbidity units (NTU) pH: 6.5-8.5 Total dissolved solids (TDS) <500 mg/Litre Zero pathogenic microorganisms Zero infectious viruses Absence of pathogenic protozoa and infective stages of helminthes Fluoride <1.0 ppm (0.5-0.8 ppm: Optimum level) Nitrates <45 mg/Litre Nitrites <3 mg/Litre Gross alpha radiological activity <0.5 Bq/Litre (new guidelines -WHO) Gross Beta radiological activity <1.0 Bq/Litre (new guidelines-WHO) Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno: 762

Lens develops from?: (A) Endoderm, (B) Mesoderm, (C) Surface ectoderm, (D) Neuroectoderm

Answer is C. Ans. c (Surface ectoderm). (Ref. Human Embryology by IB Singh, 6th/352)LENS# LENS develops from surface ectoderm.# Compared to the cornea, it has a much lower converging power of 17 diopters because of the relatively similar refractive indices of aqueous humor, lens, and vitreous body (cornea 42 D).# However, the lens is the only part of the refractive apparatus that is adjustable.# Adjustment to near vision (accommodation) therefore involves only the lens.# In addition, the lens functions as a UV filter for wavelengths between 300 and 400 nm and thus has a protective function for the macula.# Notching of the lens = "pseudocoloboma".# Wilson's disease can induce a yellow-green lens discoloration (chalcosis/ sunflower cataract).# Granular gold deposits located under the lens (chrysiasis lends) can occasionally occur after prolonged treatment with gold preparations (e. g. in primary chronic polyarthritis ).# Other medications, e.g., amiodarone or chlorpromazine, are sometimes deposited in the lens.# In patients with cataract, glittering cholesterol crystals are not infrequently found in the lens (so-called Christmas tree/ decoration cataract).

Features of neurogenic shock are: (A) ↑Peripheral resistance ↓ cardiac output, (B) ↑ Venous return ↑ cardiac output, (C) ↓Peripheral resistence↓cardiac output, (D) Venoconstriction ↓cardiac output

Answer is C. None

Palm of one hand is placed horizontally across the mouth and nostrils in: (A) Manual strangulation, (B) Palmar strangulation, (C) Garrotting, (D) Mugging

Answer is B. palmar strangulation Here the palm of one hand is placed horizontally across the mouth and nostrils, it's pressure being reinforced by placing the other palm on the top of it at right angles, the heel of the palm above pressing upon the front of the neck. Ref: TEXTBOOK OF FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY KRISHNAN VIJ FIFTH EDITION PAGE 134

In RDS all of the following statements are true except: (A) Usually occurs in infants born before 34 weeks of gestation, (B) Is more common in babies born to diabetic mothers, (C) Leads to cyanosis, (D) Is treated by administering 100% oxygen

Answer is D. Administration of 100% oxygen may increase the O2 load on fetal lung tissue. Hence, it is not given . Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition

National program for prevention and control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular disease and stroke (NPCDCS), true is -: (A) Separate centre for stroke, DM, cancer, (B) Implementation in some 5 states over 10 districts, (C) District hospital has specialised facilities, (D) Subcentre has facility for diagnosis and treatment

Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., District hospital has specialised facilities Sational program for prevention and control of cancer, diabetes, cardiovascular diseases and stroke (NPCDCS1 Introduction Single centre fi- cancer, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, stroke. 100 districts in 21 states being covered in 1 1 th live year plan. 20,000 subcentres and 700 community health centres (CHCs) covered. o Activities as sub-centres Health promotion for behaviour and lifestyle change. Oppounistic screening of BP. blood glucose (strip method) in age > 30 years. Referral to CHC of cases of DM, HT. o Activities at CHCs : Diagnosis and management at NCD clinic. Home visits by nurse for bedridden cases. Referral to district hospital for complicated cases. o Activities as District hospital : Health promotion Screening of population > 30 years. Diagnosis and management of cardiovascular disease. Home-based palliative care for chronic, debilitating progressive patients. Specialized facilities. Urban health check-up shceme JOr diabetes and high BP : Screen urban slum population. Screen population > 30 years and pregnant females. Cancer control in NPCDCS : Regional cancer control scheme : Regional cancer centres to act as referral centres for complicated cases. Oncology wing development scheme. Decentralized NGO scheme : IEC activities and early cancer detection. lEC at central level. Research and mining.

All of the following are ACTH independent Cushing syndrome except :: (A) Pituitary adenoma, (B) Adrenal hyperplasia, (C) Adrenocoical carcinoma, (D) McCune Albright Syndrome

Answer is A. ACTH dependent Cushing syndrome is caused by : ACTH producing pituitary adenoma Ectopic ACTH Bronchial or pancreatic carcinoid Small cell cancer of lung Medullary carcinoma of thyroids Pheochromocytoma ACTH Independent Cushing syndrome is caused by : Adrenocoical adenoma/ carcinoma Primary pigmented nodular adrenal disease Adrenal hyperplasia McCune Albright Syndrome Petrosal/Peripheral ACTH ratio > 2 indicates the presence of a pituitary adenoma-secreting ACTH. NOTE: Overall the most common cause of Cushing's syndrome is Iatrogenic steroids but if asked regarding ACTH dependent cause then answer should be given as Pituitary adenoma.

Hereditary spherocytosis is characterized by: March 2004: (A) Anemia, (B) Splenomegaly, (C) Jaundice, (D) All of the above

Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. All of the above

Ketamine can be given by all of following routes except-: (A) IV, (B) IM, (C) SC, (D) Nasally

Answer is C. Ketamine has been administered intravenously, orally , rectally, intramuscularly and epidural route and very rare intranasal but not subcutaneous

All of the following are features of Devic's syndrome (neuromyelitis optica), except?: (A) Separate attacks of acute optic neuritis and myelitis, (B) Optic neuritis is either unilateral or bilateral, (C) Brain MRI is typically normal, (D) It has a fulminant demyelinating process and progress to death in 1-2 year

Answer is D. Devic's disease is a variant of multiple sclerosis. Fulminant demyelinating process is seen with another variant called Marburg's variant.

Which of the following is true about calcification of teeth?: (A) Calcification of primary teeth is almost complete at time of birth, (B) Calcification of all primary teeth and few permanent teeth complete at birth, (C) Calcification of all permanent teeth complete at birt, (D) Calcification of primary teeth starts around birth

Answer is A. None

A 7 years old boy presented with painful boggy swelling of scalp, multiple sinuses with purulent discharge, easily pluckable hairs and lymph nodes enlarged in occipital region. Which one of the following would be most helpful for diagnostic evaluation?: (A) Bacterial culture, (B) Biopsy, (C) KOH mount, (D) Patch test

Answer is C. Ans. c. KOH mount

All the following are seen in Hyperparathyroidism except: (A) Subperiosteal erosion of bone, (B) Loss of lamina dura, (C) Calvarial thickening, (D) Pepper - pot skull

Answer is C. Calvarial thickening is a feature of Hypoparathyroidism.

Spore forming anaerobic gram positive bacilli ?: (A) Bacillus Anthracis, (B) Clostridia, (C) Corynebacterium, (D) Peptostreptococcus

Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Clostridia There are two medically impoant spore forming bacteria. Both of them are 'gram positive' `bacilli' :-Aerobic : BacillusAnaerobic (obligate anaerobes) : Clostridia.

Drug of choice for Falciparum Malaria is:-: (A) Chloroquine, (B) Mefloquine, (C) ACT, (D) Proguanil

Answer is C. DOC for Falciparum Malaria - ACT.( Aemisinin based Combination therapy ) In Noh Eastern states:- ACT-AL co-formulated tablet of Aemether-20 mg / Lumefantrine - 120 mg. Primaquine 0.75 mg/ kg Body weight on day 2. 2. In Other States:- ACT-SP -Aesunate 50 mg tablet for 3 days and Sulphadoxine (500mg) - Pyremethamine (25mg) tablets for 1 Day. Primaquine tablets should be given on Day 2.

All are causes of white-dot syndrome except:: (A) Fuch's heterochromic uveitis, (B) VKH syndrome, (C) HIV retinopathy, (D) Sympathetic ophthalmitis

Answer is D. Ans. Sympathetic ophthalmitis

Maximum flow of Type1 inlay wax at 45degree: (A) 2%, (B) 3%, (C) 10%, (D) 70%

Answer is D. None

Platypnea is seen with?: (A) Hepato-pulmonary syndrome, (B) Hepato-renal syndrome, (C) Renal aery stenosis, (D) Kyphoscoliosis

Answer is A. Platypnea: Increase dyspnea on sitting position Seen in 1. Atrial myxoma 2. Hepatopulmonary syndrome

Neuro lathyrism results due to: (A) Aflatoxin, (B) Pyruvic acid, (C) BOAA, (D) Sanguinarine

Answer is C. None

Factor V Leiden is caused due to a mutation that results in a substitution at position 506 glutamine to which of the following:: (A) Alanine, (B) Arginine, (C) Glycine, (D) Glutamine

Answer is B. Mutation in factor V (called the Leiden mutation, after the city in the Netherlands where it was discovered) causes recurrent DVTs. The mutation results in a glutamine to arginine substitution at position 506 that renders factor V resistant to cleavage by protein C. As a result, an impoant antithrombotic counter-regulatory pathway is lost Ref: Robbins 8th edition Chapter 4.

Kunkel's test is done to demonstrate presence of ................. in blood.: (A) Lead, (B) CuSO4, (C) CO, (D) Dhatura

Answer is C. Carbon monoxide (CO)

In which case cystometric study is indicated -: (A) Neurogenic bladder, (B) Stress incontinence, (C) Fistula, (D) Urge incontinence

Answer is A. Cystometric studies are urodynamic studies in which the pressure changes in the bladder is simultaneously measured with bladder filling and during micturition. It helps in accurate assessment of detrusor and sphincter activity especially if a neurogenic abnormality is suspected. Though it is also used in stress incontinence but the aim here is to rule out any neurogenic cause.

Fish tank granuloma is seen in -: (A) Mfortuitum, (B) Mkansasi, (C) Mmarinum, (D) M leprosy

Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., M. Marinum o Fish tank granulomaalso called ' swimming pool granuiomaf is caused by M. marinum.Principal types of opportunist mycobacterial disease in man and the usual causative agents.DiseasesUsual causative agentLymphadenopathyM. avium complexM. scrofulaceumSkin lesionPost-trauma abscessSwimming pool granulomaBuruli ulcerM. chelonaeM.fortuitumM. terraeM.marinumM. ulceransPulmonary' diseaseM. avium complexM. kansasiiM.xenopiM.malmoenseDisseminated diseaseAIDS-relatedM, avium complexM.genevenseM.avium complexM. chelonae

TYNDALLISATION is a type of: (A) intermittent sterilization, (B) pasteurisation, (C) boiling, (D) autoclaving

Answer is A. None

A 49-year-old female taking ibuprofen for increasing joint pain in her hands presents with increasing pain in her midsternal area. Gastroscopy reveals multiple, scattered, punctate hemorrhagic areas in her gastric mucosa. Biopsies from one of these hemorrhagic lesions reveal mucosal erosions with edema and hemorrhage. No mucosal ulceration is seen.: (A) Active chronic gastritis, (B) Acute gastritis, (C) Autoimmune gastritis, (D) Chronic gastritis

Answer is B. Gastritis is a nonspecific term that describes any inflammation of the gastric mucosa. Acute gastritis refers to the clinical situation of gastric mucosal erosions (not mucosal ulcers). Acute gastritis is also known as hemorrhagic gastritis or acute erosive gastritis. Acute gastritis is associated with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, such as aspirin, ibuprofen, and coicosteroids, and also with alcohol, chemotherapy, ischemia, shock, and even severe stress. Two types of stress ulcers are Curling's ulcers, seen in patients with severe burns, and Cushing's ulcers, seen in patients with intracranial lesions. Grossly acute gastritis appears as multiple, scattered, punctate (less than 1 cm) hemorrhagic areas in the gastric mucosa. This is helpful in differentiating acute gastritis from peptic ulcers, which tend to be solitary and larger. Microscopically the gastric mucosa from a patient with acute gastritis is likely to reveal mucosal erosions, scattered neutrophils, edema, and possibly hemorrhage. Acute gastritis. Erosion and complete effacement of the epithelium is observed. The residual glands, on the left, display regenerative changes with basophilic epithelium. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition

Sedimentation coefficient of Ig E is:: (A) 7S, (B) 8S, (C) 11S, (D) 20 S

Answer is B. Ans : b 8S Ref: Ananthanarayanan 8th editionSvedberg unit - a sedimentation constant of 1 x 1013sec. Sedimentation unit is studied by ultracentrifugation - for diversity of antibody moleculeIgG -7IgA -7IgM -19Ig D -7IgE -8

DNA dependent RNA synthesis is inhibited by:: (A) Rifampicin, (B) Ethambutol, (C) Colchicine, (D) Chloromycetin

Answer is A. Rifampicin

Iliac crest involvement is common in which condition: March 2007: (A) Ankylosing spondylitis, (B) Rheumatoid ahritis, (C) Reiter's syndrome, (D) Osteoahritis

Answer is A. Ans. A: Ankylosing Spondylitis The basic pathologic lesion of ankylosing spondylitis occurs at the entheses, which are sites of attachment to bone of ligaments, tendons, and joint capsules. Enthesopathy results from inflammation, with subsequent calcification and ossification at and around the entheses. Inflammation with cellular infiltration by lymphocytes, plasma cells, and polymorphonuclear leukocytes is associated with erosion and eburnation of the subligamentous bone. The process usually stas at the sacroiliac joints. Other enthesopathic sites include the iliac crest, ischial tuberosity, greater trochanter, patella, and calcaneum. Ankylosing spondylitis/ AS/ Bechterew's disease/ Bechterew syndrome/ Marie Strumpell disease/Spondyloahritis is a chronic, painful, degenerative inflammatory ahritis primarily affecting spine and sacroiliac joints, causing eventual fusion of the spine. AS is a systemic rheumatic disease and one of the seronegative spondyloahropathies. About 90% of the patients express the HLA-B27 genotype. Men are affected more than women by a ratio in excess of 10:1. Typical signs of progressed AS are the visible formation of syndesmophytes on X-rays and abnormal bone outgrowths similar to osteophytes affecting the spine. Complete fusion results in a complete rigidity of the spine, a condition known as bamboo spine. In 40% of cases, ankylosing spondylitis is associated with iridocyclitis causing eye pain and photophobia. 4.1 AS is also associated with ulcerative colitis, Crohn's disease, psoriasis, and Reiter's disease Other complications are aoic regurgitation, Achilles tendinitis, AV node block and amyloidosis & restrictive lung disease. A clinical examination and X-ray studies of the spine, which show characteristic spinal changes and sacroiliitis, are the major diagnostic tools. The Schober's test is a useful clinical measure of flexion of the lumbar spine performed during examination.

A 40-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of recur- rent oral ulcers, genital ulcers, intermittent arthritic pain of the knees, and abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals shallow ulcerations of the mucosa of the glans penis, as well as oral aphthous ulcers and conjunctivitis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) Behyet disease, (B) Genital herpes, (C) Gonorrhea, (D) Polyarteritis nodosa

Answer is A. Behget disease is a systemic vasculitis characterized by oral aphthous ulcers, genital ulceration, and ocular inflammation, with occasional involvement of the nervous, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular systems. The mucocutaneous lesions show a non-specific vasculitis of arterioles, capillaries, and venules. The cause of the necrotizing inflammation of small blood vessels is not known, but an association with specific HLA subtypes suggests an immune basis. Herpes (choice B) does not present with arthritis.Diagnosis: Behqet disease

About biotransformation not true ?: (A) Active metabolite generation, (B) Polar to less polar, (C) Less polar to more polar, (D) Generate active drug from prodrug

Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Polar to less polar

In which phase of cell cycle, proof reading occurs?: (A) G1, (B) S, (C) G2, (D) M

Answer is B. EVENTS PHASE of cell cycle Proofreading S phase Most repairs G1 phase Mismatch repair G2 phase

The number of ATPs generated in krebs cycleare ?: (A) 12, (B) 24, (C) 15, (D) 30

Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' > b' i.e., 24 One turn of the TCA cycle, staing with acetyl CoA produces 10 ATPs. When the staing molecule is pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate yields 2.5 ATPs and therefore, 12.5 ATPs are produced when staing compound is pyruvate. Since, two molecules of pyruvate enter the TCA cycle when glucose is metabolized (glycolysis produces 2 molecules of pyruvate), the number of ATPs is doubled. Therefore, 25 ATP molecules, per glucose molecule, are produced when pyruvate enters the TCA cycle.Note : Previously calculations were made assuming that NADH produces 3 ATPs and FADH generates 2 ATPs. This will amount a net generation of 30 ATP molecules in TCA per molecule glucose and total 38 molecules from staing. Recent experiments show that these values are overestimates and NADH produces 2.5 ATPs and FADH produces 1.5 ATPs. Therefore, net generation during TCA is 25 ATPs and complete oxidation of glucose through glycolysis plus citric acid cycle yield a net 32 ATPs.Energy yield (number of ATP generated) per molecule of glucose when it is completely oxidized through glycolysis plus citric acid cycle, under aerobic conditions, is as follows :- Method ofNo of ATPsNo of ATPsPathwayStepEnzymeSource ATP formationgained perglucose(new calculation)As per oldcalculationGlycolysis1Hexokinase MinusMinus 1Do3Phosphofructokinase MinusMinus 1Do5Glyceraldehyde-3-p DHNADH Respiratory chain2.5 x 2 = 53 x 2 = 6Do61,3-BPGkinase ATPSubstrate level1 x 2 -- 21 x 2 = 2Do9Pyruvate kinaseATP Substrate level1 x 2 = 21 x 2 = 2Pyruvate to?PyruvateNADH Respiratory chain2.5x2= 53x2= 6Acetyl CoA Dehydrogenase TCA cycle3Isocitrate DHNADH Respiratory chain2.5x2= 53 x 2= 6Do4Alpha keto glutarate DHNADH Respiratory chain2.5x2= 53x2= 6Do5Succinate thiokinaseGTP Substrate level1 x 2 = 21 x 2 = 2Do6Succicinate DHFADH2Respiratory chain1.5x2= 32 x 2= 4Do8Malate DHNADH Respiratory chain2.5x2= 53 x 2= 6Net generation in glycolytic pathway 9 minus 2= 7 10 minus 2= 8Generation in pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction 5 * 6Generation in citric acid cycle 20 * 24Net generation of ATP from one glucose mole 32 * 38

Child with mild squint. Intrauterine, bih history, developmental history till date all normal. Corneal reflex normal. All other eye parameters normal except exaggerated epicanthal fold. Diagnosis ?: (A) Pseudostrabismus, (B) Accomodative squint, (C) Exophoria, (D) Esophoria

Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pseudostrabismus Epicantnic fold causes Pseudoesotropia (Pseudostrabismus).

Pain-sensitive intracranial structure is:: (A) Piamater, (B) Pial vassels, (C) Duramater, (D) Brain matter

Answer is C. C i.e.Duramater

Not used for iron poison in: FMGE 09; NEET 13: (A) Magnesium hydroxide, (B) Desferrioxamine, (C) Gastric lavage, (D) Penicillamine

Answer is D. Ans. Penicillamine

Posterior relations of the head of the pancreas include all of the following, except:: (A) First pa of the duodenum, (B) Common bile duct, (C) Inferior vena cava, (D) Aoa

Answer is A. The posterior relations of the head of the pancreas include the common bile duct, inferior vena cava and the right and left renal veins terminating into it. The first pa of the duodenum is an anterior relation of the head of the pancreas.Ref: Clinical Anatomy, By Richard S. Snell, 6th edition, Page 230; Clinical Anatomy (A Problem Solving Approach), By Neeta V Kulkarni, 2nd edition, Page 689.

Which of the following events is involved in cleavage of the zygote during week 1 of development?: (A) A series of meiotic divisions forming blastomeres, (B) Production of highly differentiated blastomeres, (C) An increased cytoplasmic content of blastomeres, (D) A decrease in size of blastomeres

Answer is D. Cleavage is a series of mitotic divisions by which the large amount of zygote cytoplasm is successively paitioned among the newly formed blastomeres. Although the number of blastomeres increases during cleavage, the size of individual blastomeres decreases until they resemble adult cells in size.

A female child with virilization, hypertension with low plasma renin diagnosis is :: (A) 21α hydroxylase deficiency, (B) 11 β hydroxylase deficiency, (C) 3β hydroxylase deficiency, (D) Conn’s syndrome

Answer is B. 9] Congenital adrenal hyperplasia represents a group of autosomal recessive inherited, metabolic errors, each characterized by decency or total lack of a particular enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of cortical steroids, Steroidogenesis is then channelled into other pathways leading to increased production of androgens, which accounts for virilization. Simultaneously, the decency of cortisol results in increased secretion of ACTH resulting in adrenal hyperplasia. Following enzymes are implicated in the congenital adrenal hyperplasia 21 α hydroxylase decency (partial or complete) 17 α hydroxylase deficiency 11β hydroxylase deficiency 21 α hydroxylase deficiency • Two forms of this deficiency include - A. Salt-wasting adrenogenital ism B. Simple Virilizing adrenogenital ism A) Salt-wasting syndrome (complete lack) The salt wasting syndrome results from complete lack of 21 hydroxylases. There is no synthesis of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids in the adrenal cortex. Decreased mineralocorticoids causes marked sodium loss in the urine, resulting in hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, acidosis and hypotension. Because of the enzyme block, there is increased formation of 17 - hydroxyprogesterone, which is then shunted into the production of testosterone. This may cause virilism (pseudo-hermaphroditism) in female infants. That is (XX) Female with 21 hydroxylase deficiency develops ovaries, female ductal structures and external male genitalia. But in the male child, the effect of increased testosterone will not be manifested at the time of birth. The complete21 hydroxylase deficiency or salt wasting syndrome usually comes to light only after the birth because in utero the electrolytes and uids can be maintained by maternal kidneys. Males with this disorder comes to clinical attention 5 to 15 days later because of salt losing crisis while females come to attention soon after the birth because of the virilization. B) Simple Virilizing adrenogenital syndrome (Partial deficiency) Occurs in individuals with partial deficiency of 21 hydroxylases Less severe deficiency of mineralocorticoid, is sufficient for salt reabsorption, but the lowered glucocorticoid fails to cause feedback inhibition of ACTH secretion. Thus level of aldosterone is mildly reduced, testosterone is increased and ACTH elevated with resultant adrenal hyperplasia. 11B hydroxylase deficiency-. Rare Leads to decreased cortisol and increased ACTH. This, in turn, leads to the accumulation of DOC (deoxycorticosterone) and 11 deoxycortisol both of which are strong mineralocorticoids. This results in increased sodium retention by the kidneys and hypertension, hypokalemia. Patients also develop virilization due to androgen excess. 17 α hydroxylase deficiency - Patients with deficiency of 17 hydroxylases also have impaired cortisol production, increased ACTH and secondary increased DOC. These patients, however, cannot synthesize normal amount of androgens and estrogens. This is because the gene that codes for 17 α hydroxylase is the same for the enzyme in the adrenal cortex and the gonads and the decency is same in both organs. Because of decreased sex hormones, genotypic females develop primary amenorrhoea and fail to develop secondary sex characteristics while genotypic males will present as pseudohermaphrodite. 3 β hydroxylase deficiency 3-β hydroxylase deficiency is a rare genetic disorder of steroid biosynthesis that results in decreased production of all three groups of adrenal steroids which include mineralocorticoid, glucocorticoid and sex steroids. Decreased mineralocorticoid secretion results in varying degrees of salt wasting in both males and females. Decent androgen production results in ambiguous genitalia in males The usual presentation is a male child with ambiguous genitalia and severe salt wasting. Sometimes it may also occur in females

'Patterned' abrasion is variety of:: (A) Linear abrasion, (B) Pressure abrasion, (C) Sliding abrasion, (D) Superficial bruise

Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' ie pressure abrasion (Ref: Parikh; 6/e, p4.3).An abrasion is a superficial injury involving only the superficial layers of the skin (epidermis only), caused by friction and / or pressure between the skin and some rough object or surface. It bleeds very slightly, heals rapidly in a few days and leaves no scar.They can be classified into 3 types, depending on the manner they are created.ScratchIs a linear injury produced by a sharp object, such as pin, thorn or finger nail.Graze (Sliding, scraping or grinding abrasion).Is produced when a broad surface of skin slides against a rough surface.It is also known as brush or friction burn because it is caused by the frictional force and resembles a burn after dryingIt is commonly found in road traffic accidents.Imprint, Pressure or contact abrasion.Is produced as a result of direct impact or pressure of or contact with some object at right angles to the skin surface.The cuticle is crushed, and the object marks a reproduction of its shape and pattern on the to the skin, therefore it is known as patterned abrasion.Example are ligature marks in hanging and strangulation, nail and thumbs marks in throttling, teeth marks in biting, radiator, grill or tyre mask in vehicular accidents.

Pimozide belongs to class of:: (A) Thiothixanthene, (B) Phenothiazine, (C) Butyrophenone, (D) Diphenyl butyl piperidine

Answer is D. Thioxanthenes are flupenthioxol. Butyrophenones are haloperidol, trifluperidol , penfluridol. Phenothiazines are Chlorpromazine, triflupromazine , thioridazine, flufenazine. Promazine belongs to the group of other of other hetero cyclics that is diphenyl butyl piperidine. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.

Which of the following drugs is antipseudomonal penicillin?: (A) Cephalexin, (B) Dicloxacillin, (C) Piperacillin, (D) Cloxacillin

Answer is C. None

Following poisoning retards putrefaction: NEET 13: (A) Aluminium phosphide, (B) Lead, (C) Arsenic, (D) Copper

Answer is C. Ans. Arsenic

True statements about parotid gland: (A) Duct opens oppsite to upper 2nd molar tooth, (B) Duct pierces Masseter, (C) Develops from ectoderm, (D) Secretomotor fibres come from facial nerve

Answer is A. The duct runs forwards for a sho distance between the buccinator and the oral mucosa. Finally, the duct turns medically and opens into the vestibule of the mouth(gingivobuccal vestibule)opposite the crown of the upper second molar tooth. Notes: Parotid abscess may be caused by spread of infection from the opening of parotid duct in the mouth cavity. <img src=" /> REF.BDC VOL.3,Sixth edition pg 110

Which of the following statement is false about hydrocele?: (A) Arises due to patent processus vaginalis, (B) Wait for 5 years for spontaneous closure of congenital hydrocele, (C) Lord's plication of sac for small hydrocele, (D) Jaboulay's eversion of sac for medium hydrocele

Answer is B. Treatment of Hydrocele Congenital Hydrocele: Usually spontaneous obliteration by 2 years age. If persists then Herniotomy. Treatment of Vaginal Hydrocele 1. Small hydrocele: Lord's procedure (Plication of sac)Q 2. Medium hydrocele: Jaboulay's procedure (Eversion of sac)Q 3. Large hydrocele: Excision of sacQ

The main difference between dental stone and dental plaster is:: (A) Chemical composition, (B) Self life, (C) Shape and size of particles, (D) Solubility in water

Answer is C. None

A normally developing 10 months old child should be able to do all of the following except –: (A) Stand alone, (B) Play peak to boo, (C) Pick up a pellet with thumb and index finger, (D) Build a tower of 3–4 cubes

Answer is D. A child starts trying to build a tower of cubes (2 cubes) by the age of 1 year. About other options Child can stand with support by 9 months. Child can play peak-a-boo game by 10 months. Child can pick up a pellet with thumb and index finger (pincer grasp) by 9 months.

Lines of Blaschko&;s are along: (A) Lymphatics, (B) Nervs, (C) Developmental, (D) Blood vessels

Answer is C. Blaschko&;s lines, are lines of normal cell development in the skin. These lines are invisible under normal conditions.

All the teeth in patient’s mouth are similarly affected as shown in the radiograph. What is the most likely anomaly?: (A) Type 1 dentinal dysplasia, (B) Type 2 dentinal dysplasia, (C) Taurodontism, (D) Amelogenesis imperfecta

Answer is B. Dentinal dysplasia Dentinal dysplasia is an inherited condition affecting both dentitions. It is divided into two types: Type I (radicular dentinal dysplasia) and Type II (coronal dentinal dysplasia). It occurs less frequently than dentinogenesis imperfecta. Clinical features Type I is the more frequent type. Teeth erupt normally with no obvious abnormality but rapidly develop mobility resulting from limited root support. In type II, the deciduous teeth are similar to those in dentinogenesis imperfecta, whereas the permanent teeth appear normal. Radiological signs In Type I, all the teeth, except the canines, have extremely short roots. The roots are conical or blunted. There is pulpal obliteration and the inferior aspects of the crown exhibit linear crescent-shaped radiolucent lines. Periapical radiolucencies are commonly seen associated with non-carious teeth in Type I dentinal dysplasia. In Type II dentinal dysplasia, obliteration of the pulp occurs post eruption in the deciduous dentition. In the permanent dentition, there is alteration in the configuration of the pulp resulting in enlarged pulp chambers extending well down into the root. The pulp contains multiple calcifications. Ref: Interpreting Dental Radiographs by Keith Horner, Jon Rout and Vivian E Rushton

Middle aged female with mass in sella turcica hormone increased is -: (A) Prolactin, (B) Thyroxine, (C) Extrogen, (D) ADH

Answer is A. The sella turcica is a saddle shaped depression of the sphenoid bone. It forms the caudal border of the pituitary gland. Sella turcica is an anatomically complex area with a number of different potential pathologies especially neoplastic process. Pathologies of sella turcica can lead to important clinical presentations such as hormonal imbalances from pathologies affecting the pituitary gland and neurological symptoms from the mass effect. Sella turcica is critically located as several structures pass close to it due to compression of the adjacent structures. Important anatomical structures related to sella Optic chiasm Pituiatry gland Internal carotids​ Gavernous sinus and cranial nerves Sphenoid sinuses

Hyoid bone fracture most common occurs in ?: (A) Manual strangulation, (B) Hanging, (C) Smothering, (D) Traumatic asphyxia

Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Manual strangulation As manual strangulation (throttling) is among the most violent form of asphyxia, hyoid fracture and other injury to neck structures is more common.

"Acute Meningoencephalitis" is caused by:: (A) E. histolytica, (B) Nageleria, (C) Giardia, (D) E.coli

Answer is B. Nageleria

The process of destroying all microbes including spores is called :: (A) Disinfection, (B) Antisepsis, (C) Asepsis, (D) Sterilization

Answer is D. None

All are major symptoms of sinusitis except: (A) Nasal blockage, (B) Facial congestion, (C) Nasal congestion, (D) Halitosis

Answer is D. According to Rhinosinusitis task force definition of sinusitis,Major criteria-Facial pain, pressure, congestion, nasal obstruction, nasal/postnasal discharge, hyposmia and feverMinor criteria- Headache, halitosis, and dental painRef: Hazarika; 3rd ed; Pg 328

Most sensitive nerve fiber to hypoxia: (A) A, (B) B, (C) C, (D) All are equally sensitive

Answer is B. Question repeated

Nasal septum is formed except by: (A) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid, (B) Vomer, (C) Nasal bone, (D) Lateral cailage

Answer is D. The bony pa is formed by: 1.Vomer 2.Perpendicular plate of ethmoid 3.Nasal spine of frontal bone 4.Rostrum of sphenoid 5.Nasal crest of nasal, palatine and maxillary bones. NOTES: The cailaginous pa is formed by; 1.Septal cailage 2.Septal process of inferior nasal cailages The cuticular pa is formed by; 1.Fibrofatty tissue Ref.BDC volume3,Sixth edition pg 240

Metoprolol is preferred over Propranolol as it: September 2010: (A) Is more potent in blocking beta-1 receptors, (B) Is more potent in blocking beta-2 receptors, (C) Is more effective in suppressing essential tremors, (D) Impairs exercise capacity

Answer is A. Ans. A: Is more potent in blocking beta-1 receptors Metoprolol is cardioselective beta blocker, more potent in blocking beta-1 than beta-2 adrenergic receptors.

All will predispose to atherosclerosis, except: (A) Homocystinemia, (B) Fibrinogen, (C) Calcium, (D) Lipoprotein A

Answer is C. Elevated plasma levels of  homocysteine are associated with increased risk of atherosclerosis, thrombosis and hypertension. Lipoprotein A inhibits fibrinolysis, therefore predisposes to atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis (Greek  athere-mush)  is a complex disease characterized by thickening or hardening of arteries due to the accumulation of lipids (particularly cholesterol, free, and esterified), collagen, fibrous tissue, proteoglycans, calcium deposits, etc. in the inner arterial wall.  Satyanarayana, Ed 3, Pg No 152

Most serious complication seen in other eye after traumatic injury to one eye: March 2005, September 2008: (A) Subconjunctival hemorrhage, (B) Corneal edema, (C) Sympathetic ophthalmia, (D) Sudden loss of vision

Answer is C. Ans. C: Sympathetic ophthalmia Sympathetic ophthalmia (SO) is a condition in which serious inflammation attacks the sound eye after injury (including intraocular surgeries) to the other. It is the most dreaded complication of unilateral severe eye injury, as it can leave the patient completely blind. Symptoms may develop from days to several years after a penetrating eye injury. Sympathetic ophthalmia is thought to be an autoimmune inflammatory response toward ocular antigens, specifically a delayed hypersensitivity to melanin-containing structures from the outer segments of the photoreceptor layer of the retina. It is thought that Louis Braille, who injured his left eye as a child, lost vision in his right eye due to SO Floating spots and loss of accommodation are among the earliest symptoms. The disease may progress to severe iridocyclitis with pain and photophobia. Commonly the eye remains relatively painless while the inflammatory disease spreads through the uvea. The retina, however, usually remains uninvolved. Papilledema, secondary glaucoma, vitiligo and poliosis of the eyelashes may accompany SO. Diagnosis is clinical, seeking a history of eye injury. An impoant differential diagnosis is Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome (VKH), which is thought to have the same pathogenesis, without a history of surgery or penetrating eye injury. Definitive prevention of SO requires prompt (within the first 7 to 10 days following injury) enucleation of the injured eye. Evisceration--the removal of the contents of the globe while leaving the sclera and extraocular muscles intact--is easier to perform, offers long-term orbital stability, and is more aesthetically pleasing. But evisceration may lead to a higher incidence of SO compared to enucleation. Immunosuppressive therapy is the mainstay of treatment for SO. When initiated promptly following injury, it is effective in controlling the inflammation and improving the prognosis.

Least commonly seen in conduct disorder seen in girls:-: (A) Run away from home, (B) High risk sexual behavior, (C) Physical aggression, (D) Emotional bullying

Answer is C. Conduct disorder - Persistent pattern of antisocial behavior in which the individual repeatedly breaks social rules and carries out aggressive acts.in conduct disorder they do it deliberately usually characterized by aggression and violation of the rights of others boys with conduct disorder show physical & relationship aggression but In girls relationship aggression is more predominant than physical aggression children with conduct disorder usually have behaviors characterized by aggression to persons or animals, destruction of propey, deceitfulness or theft, and multiple violations of rules, such as truancy from school.

Which of the following aminoglycosides has the highest nephrotoxicity?: (A) Paromomycin, (B) Streptomycin, (C) Amikacin, (D) Neomycin

Answer is D. None

Least conduction velocity is seen in:: (A) AV node, (B) Purkinje fibers, (C) Bundle of His, (D) Ventricular myocardial fibres

Answer is A. None