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Prucalopride drug is ? | A: 5HT4 agonist B: 5HT2b agonist C: 5HT2b antagonist D: 5HT2a agonist | 0 |
During voluntary movements, Golgi tendon organ has an impoant role to play because it continuously relays to the efferent neurons: | A: Length of the muscle at rest B: Change in angle of joint during motion C: Change in length of muscle before and after the movement D: Tension in the muscle | 3 |
The hormone, which stimulates uterus contraction and lets down milk, is: | A: Progesterone B: Prolactin C: Prostaglandin D: Oxytocin | 3 |
Production and citation impact of published work of a scientist or scholar | A: Impact factor B: Citation C: H index D: Z index | 1 |
Ig in GCF? | A: Ig A B: Ig M C: Ig G D: Ig D | 2 |
The function of compensating curve is | A: To provide balanced occlusion in complete dentures when mandible is protruded B: To aid in establishing an incisal guide C: Same as function of curve of spee D: None of the above | 0 |
Induction of inhalational agent is faster. | A: Agent with high blood gas solubility B: Combined with nitrous oxide C: Person with increased residual volume D: Right to left shunt | 1 |
Hammock ligament is present: | A: Between temporal and sphenoid bone B: Between hamular notch and mandible C: In apical area of a tooth D: As a part of deep cervical fascia | 2 |
Centric holding cusp is? | A: Mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary 1st molar B: Mesiolingual cusp of mandibular first molar C: Distolingual cusp of mandibular 1st molar D: Mesiopalatal cusp of maxillary 1st molar | 3 |
What is the Ilekt step in management of a 32 years old woman with a 5 years history of primary infeil-ity with bilateral tubal block seen at cornu on hys-terosalpingogram? | A: In vitro feilization B: Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy C: Intracytoplasmic sperm injection D: Tuboplasty | 1 |
Pickling is done: | A: To remove oxide film from casting B: Polish the casting C: Improve the strength of casting D: Avoid casting defects | 0 |
MHC Class II proteins are expressed by: | A: B-cells, dendritic cells and macrophages B: Platelets C: T-cells D: All nucleated cells | 0 |
Soft tissue curettage is used for: | A: Shallow pockets with gingivitis B: Deep pockets with gingivitis C: Infrabony pockets D: Oedematous gingiva | 0 |
All are true about RVG except: | A: 80% reduction of patient exposure B: Instant imaging C: Easy to storage and retrieval. D: Image is sharper than caused by silver halide. | 3 |
HCO3/H2CO3 is the best buffer because it is: | A: pKa near physiological pH B: Its components can be increased or decreased in the body as needed C: Good acceptor and donor of H+ ions D: Combination of a weak acid and weak base | 1 |
Which of the following is an essential fatty acid? | A: Linoleic acid B: Alpha linolenic acid C: Both of the above D: None of the above | 2 |
In female adrenal gland secretes which hormone? | A: Progesterone B: Testosterone C: Estrogen D: DHEA | 3 |
Which of the following is the function of Hyperpolarizing Cyclic Nucleotide (HCN) gated channels? | A: Cardiac rhythm generation B: Generation of mitochondrial action potential C: Myocardial muscle contraction D: Memory formation | 0 |
A 4 year old child sustained a fracture in central incisor one month ago. On examination, a necrotic pulp was seen with no other pathological findings. The treatment of choice is: | A: Watchful observation B: Extraction followed by space maintainer C: Pulpectomy and root canal filling with gutta percha D: Endodontic treatment and root canal filling with ZOE | 3 |
Both ketogenic and glucogenic amino acids as | A: Isoleucine B: Leucine C: Arginine D: Glycine | 0 |
An un-immunized 13 months old child comes to you in OPD, according to the latest immunizations schedule, what vaccines will you advise?? | A: OPV 3 doses, I IPV 3 Pentavalent and I measles B: BCG, OPV 3 doses, 3 lPV, 3 Pentavalent and I measles C: OPV 3 doses, I IPV 3 Pentavalent and 2 measles D: OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-B | 3 |
A 32 weeks pregnant female presented with labor pains and minimal vaginal discharge, on analysis of the cervicovaginal discharge showed presence of fetal fibronectin. What is the probable diagnosis? | A: Preterm labour B: IUGR C: IUD D: Cervical infection | 0 |
A65-year-old male adult presents with chronic sinusitis, nasopharyngeal ulcers, cavitatory lung nodules and renal failure. What will be the appropriate next diagnostic step? | A: Lung biopsy B: Sputum AFB and PCR for TB C: ANCA and evaluation for vasculitis D: ESR | 2 |
All of the following are true about COPD except: | A: Decreased FEV1 B: Decreased MEFR C: Increased RV D: Decreased diffusion capacity | 3 |
Bias that arises from evaluating data on patients and hospital records only such that probability of exposure to a particular factor is increased is known as: | A: Berkesonian bias B: Confound bias C: Memory or recall bias D: Selection bias | 0 |
A midwife at a PI-IC is monitoring pregnancy and maintaining the paograph of pregnancy progression. At how much cervical dilation should the paograph plotting be staed? | A: 4 cm B: 5 cm C: 6 cm D: 8 cm | 0 |
Geniculate neuralgia is caused in the nerve | A: VII B: IX C: X D: II | 0 |
Empty Thecal sac sign in: | A: Arachnoiditis B: Tethered Cord syndrome C: Veebral osteomyelitis D: Discitis | 0 |
An absolute indication for LSCS in case of a Heart disease is: | A: Co-arctation of Aorta B: Eisenmenger syndrome C: Ebsteins anomaly D: Pulmonary stenosis | 0 |
Which is not true about vibrio cholera | A: It is non-halophilic B: Grows on simple media C: Man is the only natural host D: Cannot survive in extracellular environment | 3 |
Gene commonly indicated in congenital cataract: | A: PAX-6 B: CRYGS-3 C: LMX- IB D: PITX-3 | 1 |
A case of jaundice with 50% direct bilirubin, other LFTs normal. Diagnosis is – | A: Rotor syndrome B: Gilbert syndrome C: Glucuronyl transferase deficiency D: Primary biliary cirrhosis | 0 |
Pickling: | A: Is accomplished by soaking the casting in baking soda B: Causes porosity in gold C: Removes surface oxides from gold castings D: Remove investment from gold casting | 2 |
Easiest 3rd molar surgical extraction is: | A: Mesioangular B: Horizontal C: Vertical D: Distoangular | 0 |
In examining the edentulous mouth of an aged patient wearing complete maxillary denture against six mandibular teeth, the dentist will see: | A: Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve B: Loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxilla C: Flabby tissue in the posterior region D: Decrease interocclusal distance | 1 |
Obstructive sleep apnoea caused by the following | A: Mandibular ameloblasma B: Dentigerous cyst C: Orbital fracture D: Bilateral TMJ ankylosis | 3 |
Von Willebrand factor is secreted by which of the following? | A: Macrophages B: Endothelial cells C: Platelets D: Fibroblast | 1 |
Factors affecting the treatment of MI | A: Regional wall motion abnormality B: Troponin level C: Both D: None | 2 |
All of the following are features of systemic Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis except – | A: Uveitis B: Rash C: Fever D: Hepatosplenomegaly | 0 |
An 80 kg male patient presented to the emergency with hypotension and you have been instructed to sta him on an inotrope at a dose of 10 mcg/kg/min. Each 5 mL amp of the drug contains 200 mg drug. You choose 2 ampules of the drug and decide to mix it with saline to make a 250 mL solution. What should be the flow rate of the drug solution to maintain the BP of the patient (assuming 16 drops = 1 mL)? | A: 4 drops/min B: 8 drops/min C: 10 drops/min D: 16 drops/min | 1 |
A two year old girl child is brought to the out patient with features of hand wringing stereotype movements, impaired language and communication development, breath holding spells, poor social skills and deceleration of head growth after 6 months of age. The most likely diagnosis is – | A: Asperger's syndrome B: Rett's syndrome C: Fragile x–syndrome D: Colarad syndrome | 1 |
How many scores are used in modified Dean's fluorosis index? | A: 4 B: 6 C: 8 D: 5 | 1 |
Beta 3 glucan assay testing not done for | A: Invasive candidiasis B: Aspergillosis C: Pneumocystis carnii D: Mucormycosis | 3 |
Topical treatment for recurrent respiratory papillomatosis includes: | A: Acyclovir B: Cidofovir C: Ranitidine D: Zinc | 1 |
More than 80% cephalic index of a patient indicates which of the following | A: Brachycephalic B: Mesocephatic C: Dolicocephalic D: Depends on age | 0 |
Major determinant of loading dose of a drug is | A: Half life B: Clearance C: Volume of distribution D: Bioavailability | 2 |
Divergence from contact area in proximal surfaces
causes embrasures: | A: Facially B: Lingually C: Cervically D: Facially, lingually, cervically & occlusally | 3 |
Yellowish-brown staining of the IOPA dental X-ray film is due to: | A: Immersion in fixer without washing B: Increased temperature of developer C: Increased exposure time D: Drying away of the developer solution | 0 |
Which of the following is not ture about increased intracraniaL pressure | A: Headache B: Nausea / vomiting C: Muscle twitching D: Somnolence | 2 |
Retromolar pad: | A: Should not be covered by Low denture B: Should be covered by lower denture C: Has tendon of temporal muscle attached to it D: Disappears on eruption of mandibular last molars | 1 |
The process of transfer of information from the RNA to the proteins is called: | A: Mutation B: Translation C: Transcription D: Conjugation | 1 |
All of the following are potentially serious side effects of thioamide group of antithyroid drugs except: | A: Hepatic dysfunction B: Severe rash C: Agranulocytosis D: Anaphylaxis | 3 |
In which stage of neurocysticercosis, there is no edema? | A: Vesicular B: Vesicular colloidal C: Granular nodular D: Nodular calcified | 3 |
Which of the following is not a pa of the quadruple test for antenatal detection of Down syndrome? | A: AFP B: Estriol C: Beta HCG D: Inhibin B | 3 |
Antibody-dependent enhancement is implicated in the immunopathogenesis of which disease? | A: Influenza B: Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome C: Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome D: Dengue hemorrhagic fever | 3 |
The drug not belonging to amide group | A: Procaine B: Xylocaine C: Lignocaine D: Bupivacaine | 0 |
Extra retention in abutment teeth is obtained with: | A: Dovetail B: Slots, pins and grooves C: Outline form D: Increasing tooth reduction | 1 |
Sonic frequency range is: | A: 1000-2000 Hz B: 1500-6000 Hz C: 20,000-30,000 Hz D: 10,000 Hz | 1 |
Cause of apical periodontitis is/are: | A: Sequel of pulpal diseases B: Wedging of foreign object between the teeth C: High points in restoration D: All of the above | 3 |
Which of the following series act as the best space
maintainer in a child's mouth? | A: Restored deciduous tooth B: Acrylic partial denture C: Distal shoe space maintainer D: Band and loop space maintainer | 0 |
Most common cause of postauricular lymphadenopathy in children : | A: Sore throat B: Pediculosis capitis C: Pulmonary Koch's D: Chronic suppurative otitis media | 1 |
Infected mandibular angle fracture is treated by? | A: Mini plates B: Reconstruction plates C: Champy plate at upper border D: IMF + ID | 3 |
Of all the solvent used to dissolve Gutta Percha, safest & efficacious G.P. solvent is? | A: Halothane B: Chloroform C: Methylchloroform D: Xylene | 1 |
The following enzyme is responsible for thirst mechanism during dehydration? | A: ADH B: Noradrenaline C: Epinephrine D: Dopamine | 0 |
Ptosis may be caused by a lesion of the: | A: Oculomotor nerve B: Superior oblique C: Trigeminal nerve D: Trochlear nerve | 0 |
The treatment of choice for primary grade V vesicoureteric reflux involving both kidneys in a 6 month old boy is – | A: Antibiotic prophylaxis B: Ureteric reimplantation C: Cystoscopy followed by subureteric injection of teflon D: Bilateral ureterostomies. | 0 |
Idiosyncratic side-effects of carbamazepine are all except: | A: Steven-Johnson syndrome B: Agranulocytosis C: Rash D: Blurred vision | 3 |
Neoplasia of blood vessel is called | A: Angioma B: Hematoma C: Lymphosarcoma D: Papilloma | 0 |
Which of the following is innervated by the vagus nerve? | A: The levator veli palatine (levator palatini) B: The posterior belly of digastric C: Mylohyoid D: The tensor veli palatine (tensor palatini) | 0 |
A voluntary donor underwent apheresis for platelet donation for the first time after which he developed perioral tingling and numbness. This is seen because | A: His platelet count was low for donation B: He underwent apheresis for the first time C: Due to fluid depletion D: Due to citrate based anticoagulant | 3 |
P3L3 came to opd with postcoital bleeding and pap positive p/v cervix hyperophied bleed on touch diagnosis - | A: CA cervix B: Fibroid C: Cervicitis D: Cervical polyp | 0 |
Which of the following PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) is removed first? | A: Gloves B: Face shield C: Gown D: Mask | 0 |
A cyst occurs under the tongue, caused by obstruction of a salivary gland. Such a cyst is called: | A: Mucocele B: Ranula C: Derrnoid cyst D: Dentigerous cyst | 1 |
What is the maximum capacity of Bakri balloon which is used in post paum hemorrhage? | A: 200 mL B: 300 in L C: 500 mL D: 1000 m L | 2 |
All of these are G2 phase blockers except: | A: Etoposide B: Topotecan C: Paclitaxel D: Daunorubicin | 2 |
The primary action of topical fluoride is a: | A: Conversion of hydroxyapatite to fluoroapatite B: Decrease in the plaque bacteria C: Form a reservoir in saliva D: Improve morphology of teeth | 0 |
A child is admitted on 7 days of life with severe respiratory distress and shock. He was discharged 2 days back healthy. What could be the probable diagnosis – | A: VSD large B: Hypoplastic left heart syndrome C: Ebstein anomaly D: AP window defect | 1 |
A 20 years old boy presented with persistent cervical lymphadenopathy for the past 1 year. Histopathology of lymph node shows Reed-Sternberg cells with focal nodularity and background of T reactive lymphocytes. The cells were positive for CD20, LCA, EMA and negative for CD15 and CD30 and EBV negative. Diagnosis is: | A: Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's lymphoma B: Lymphocyte rich Hodgkin's lymphoma C: Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma D: Small cell lymphoma | 0 |
Among all of the following foramens in the base of skull, which is, the most posteriorly present: | A: Foramen spinosum B: Foramen rotundum C: Foramen ovale D: All at same level | 0 |
Most common pathognomonic sign of mandibular fracture: | A: Sublingual hematoma. B: Malocclusion C: Tenderness D: Buccal hematoma. | 0 |
Open reduction of condylar fracture is strongly indicated in
(Or)
Absolute indication for open reduction in condylar fractures | A: Condyle fracture along with body fracture B: Lateral displacement of the condyle (or) Lateral fracture dislocation condyle C: 200 angulations D: Condyle is separated from the stump | 1 |
BCG is maximally protective against:- | A: Pulmonary TB B: Pulmonary and CNS TB C: CNS and Disseminated TB D: Extra pulmonary TB | 2 |
A patient underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy and was discharged on the same day. On postoperative day 3, he presented to the hospital with fever. Ultra-sonography showed a 5 x 5 cm collection in the right sub diaphragmatic region. What will be the manage!ment? | A: Observe with antibiotic cover B: Re-explore the wound with T-tube inseion C: Pigtail inseion and drainage D: ERCP and proceed | 2 |
About Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI), all of the following are true except: | A: Signs and symptoms usually subsides within 2-3 weeks of onset B: Suppoive care is the mainstay of treatment C: Steroids have a doubtful role in management D: Moality is less than 10% | 0 |
A pregnant lady is diagnosed to be HBs Ag positive. Which of the following is the best way to prevent infection to the child: | A: Hepatitis vaccine to the child B: Full course of Hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin to the child C: Hepatitis B immunoglobulin to the mother D: Hepatitis B immunization to mother | 1 |
Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis infection in pregnancy is true?: | A: Hepatitis B core antigen status is the most sensitive indicator of positive vertical transmission of disease B: Hepatitis B is the most common form of hepatitis after blood transfusion C: The proper treatment of infants born to infected mothers includes the administration of hepatitis B immune globulin as well as vaccine D: Patients who develop chronic active hepatitis should undergo MTP | 2 |
Endocarditis is most commonly seen in: | A: Aortic stenosis. B: Mitral regurgitation. C: Patent ductus arteriosus. D: Venous bypass graft. | 0 |
A patient with multiple loose teeth requires extraction and has mitral stenosis with mild cardiac insufficiency. He is on enalapril, digoxin, and furosemide. The antibiotic of choice to prevent bacterial endocarditis is: | A: Amoxicillin B: Doxycycline C: Cotrimoxazole D: Gentamicin | 0 |
A patient with a history of diabetes for one year with no other complications should have an ophthalmic examination? | A: As early as feasible B: After 5 years C: After 10 years D: Only after visual symptoms level | 0 |
An I.V. drug abuser presents with fever for 10 days. CXR shows B/L lower lobe consolidation with necrosis and right sided pyopneumothorax. Probable diagnosis is: | A: MV endocarditis due to viridans Streptococci B: TV endocarditis due to Staph. aureus C: Tuberculosis D: Pneumocystis jirovecii infection | 1 |
A breast fed child presents with hypernatremia (Serum sodium > 170m Eq/L). His urine sodium is 70 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most likely cause – | A: Diabetes insipidus B: Acute necrosis C: Severe dehydration D: Excessive intake of sodium | 3 |
Gingival massage increases blood supply in: | A: Epidermis B: Basal layer C: Lamina propria D: All of the above | 2 |
Initial calcification of crown represents Which Nolla's stage: | A: Stage 1 B: Stage 2 C: Stage 3 D: Stage 4 | 1 |
Plastic carrier size of 40-90 in carrier base Gutta percha are made from? | A: Poly propylene B: Poly Sulphone C: Poly Sulphide D: Liquid crystal plastic | 1 |
All of the following are true for light cure composite except: | A: Held at distance of 1 mm from tooth B: Use of orange glass shield for eye protection C: Polymerization reaction continues for a period of 72 hours D: Adding increments of 1-2 mm | 2 |
The joint which histologically & morphologically best simulate the TMJ is | A: 5th costochondral graft B: 3rd metatarsal graft C: Sternoclavicular graft D: None of the above | 2 |
A patient sustained A and endotracheal intubation was done. Most likely GCS score of such a patient would be:March 2013 (b, c, d) | A: 8 B: 10 C: 12 D: 15 | 0 |
Rapid onset of action seen by local anesthesia in small nerve endings is due to | A: Increased threshold of small nerves due to depolarization B: Low pH of small nerve fibres C: High ratio of surface area to the volume of small nerve fibres D: Increased resting potential of small nerve fibres | 2 |
Which of the following intrauterine infections is associated with limb reduction defects and scarring of skin – | A: Varicella virus B: Herpes virus C: Rubella D: Parvovirus | 0 |
Acromegaly is associated with | A: Class. I malocclusion B: Class. I cross bite C: Class. II malocclusion D: Class. III malocclusion | 3 |