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Most effective method of assessing breathing is by measuring:
A: Tidal volume B: Respiratory rate C: Alveolar ventilation D: FEV 1
3
Major aim of phase 1 clinical trials is:
A: Safety B: Efficacy C: Dose D: Pharmacokinetics
2
The blood pressure data of 200 persons were collected. The first quaile BP of the data was 94 mm Hg and third quaile was 110 mm. How many patients have blood pressures between the 3rd and 4th quaile?
A: 25 B: 50 C: 100 D: 200
1
Which of the following defines the pressure in the vascular system in the absence of blood flow? (Asked twice)
A: Pulse pressure B: Critical closing pressure C: Mean circulatory filling pressure D: Perfusion pressure
2
Best parameter for ultrasound evaluation of IUGR is:
A: Placental membrane B: Length of femur C: Abdominal circumference D: BPD
2
According to WHO classification of periapical pathology, sinus to oral cavity comes under:
A: 4.6 B: 4.6 C: 4.61 D: 4.62
3
In a child, surgery was done for biliary stricture with hepatojejunal anastomosis. Postoperative bilirubin level after 2 weeks was 6 mg/dL from a preoperative level 12mg/dL. The reason for this could be:
A: Normal lowering of bilirubin takes time B: Anastomotic stricture C: Delta bilirubin D: Mistake in lab technique
2
A 2 month old girl has failure to thrive, polyuria and medullary nephrocalcinosis affecting both kidneys. Investigations show blood pH 7.48, bicarbonate 25 mEq/l, potassium 2 mEq/l, sodium 126 mEq/l and chloride 88 mEq/l. The most likely diagnosis is -
A: Distal renal tubular acidosis B: Primary hyperaldosteronism C: Bartter syndrome D: Pseudohypoaldosteronism
2
Resin teeth:
A: Show a high compressive strength B: Contraindicated in patients with decreased inter occlusal distance C: Show crazing D: Show a high fracture strength
3
In alpha-thalassemia trait,electrophoresis shows:March 2005
A: Increased HbF and normal HbA2 B: Normal HbF and normal HbA2 C: Normal HbF and decreased HbA2 D: Decreased HbF and normal HbA2
1
Zone of stimulation contains all except:
A: Fibroblasts B: Osteoclasts C: Osteoblasts D: New bone formation
1
Minimum number of lobes require to form a tooth
A: 1 B: 2 C: 3 D: 4
0
In the odontoblastic layer the following connections is/are found
A: Zona adherens B: Gap junctions C: Zonula occludens D: All of the above
3
All are features of Neonatal Tetanus except –
A: Refusal to feed is common initial symptom B: Caused by clostridium tetani C: Usually occurs in 1st 2 days of life D: Mortality is 50–75%.
2
In assessing infant deaths, Ploucquet's test involves:
A: Change in specific gravity of lungs B: Presence of air in stomach and duodenum C: Change in paial weight of lungs D: Air in middle ear
2
Scammon's growth curve. False is
A: Neural tissues-Most of the growth is completed by 6 years B: Lymphoid tissues — growth reaches 200% by age 13 and regresses afterwards C: Genital tissues — most of the growth is completed by the age of puberty D: None of the above
2
The transport of CO is diffusion limited because
A: Binds avidly with Hb B: Partial pressure of CO is less C: CO is less absorbed in water D: Alveolar membrane is less permeable
0
Acetazolamide is given to a patient of angle closure glaucoma. It is a non-competitive inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase enzyme. Which of the following should be the effect of this drug?
A: Decrease in Vmax B: A.Decrease in Km C: Increase in both Km and Vmax D: No change in Vmax
0
All are true about rapid sequence induction done in a cardiac patient in emergency except:
A: Inducing agent and neuromuscular relaxant are administered together B: The patient is pre-oxygenated for 3 minutes before the procedure C: Cricoid pressure has to be applied till the endotracheal tube has been secured with a cuff D: Induction should be done with thiopentone sodium and succinylcholine for muscle relaxation
3
A 25-year-old lady presents with sudden severe bilateral loss of vision, more so on the right side, with no perception of light. Rest of the examination including pupillary reflexes, fundus and optokinetic nystagmus are normal. She was able to touch the tips of her fingers with her right eye closed but not with her left eye closed. The most like1 tgnosis is:
A: Optic neuritis B: Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy C: CMV retinitis D: Functional vision loss
3
A 60-year old male presents with painful, 141 oupet. vesicles over erythematous plaques in T3 dermatome region of trunk. Which of the following would be the most likely causative organism?
A: Varicella zoster B: Herpes simplex C: Pox virus D: Papilloma virus
0
A patient is administered 200 mg of a drug. 75 mg of the drug is eliminated from the body in 90 minutes. If the drug follows first order kinetics, how much drug will remain after 6 hours?
A: 12.5 mg B: 25 mg C: 30 mg D: 50 mg
2
The most common side effect of the oral administration of ampicillin is
A: Anaphylactic shock B: Diarrhoea C: Oral candidiasis D: Renal failure
1
Adverse effects of salbutamol are all except
A: Tremors B: Tachycardia C: Hypoglycemia D: Hypokalemia
2
Most common extraradicular microorganism is/ are:
A: Actinomyces species. B: Propioni bacterium. C: Propionicum. D: All of the above.
3
Ludwig's angina is characterized by
A: Raised tongue B: Elevation of ear lobe C: Trismus D: Unilateral swelling
0
Least condensation pressure is required in:
A: Spherical amalgam alloy, high copper B: Admixed amalgam alloy, high copper C: Admixed amalgam alloy, low copper D: Lathe cut alloy
0
Denominator in perinatal moality rate
A: Total bihs B: Total live bihs C: Live bihs + Still bih D: Total number of newborns
0
A child spends 8 years of life in a temperate climate where the drinking water had fluoride of 3 ppm. The teeth that are effected are:
A: All primary teeth B: All permanent teeth, except third molars C: Incisors, canines, premolars and third molars D: Only molars
1
The ideal instrument that is used to widen the canal is
A: Broach B: File C: Fissure bur D: Reamer
1
According to instrument formula given by G.V. Black, primary cutting edge angle should be:
A: More than 50 degree B: More than 90 degree C: Less than 50 degree D: Less than 90 degree
0
Which of the following is not true for incubation period?
A: For determining isolation period of a disease B: To prevent infection among contacts C: For quarantine of disease D: To differentiate among secondary cases and co-primary cases
0
Treatment of ANUG utilizes all except:
A: Debridement B: Oral hygiene C: Penicillin D: Topical steroid
3
Median rhomboid glossitis is associated with:
A: Burning mouth syndrome B: Fungal infection C: Bacterial infection D: Absence of filiform papillae
3
A young male present with loose motions and intermittent abdominal pain over the past 1 year. Wet mount stool specimen showed the presence of multiple ova which are more than 100u in diameter. The causative organisms for the disease shall not include?
A: Fasciola gigantica B: Gastrodiscoides hominis C: Echinostoma ilocanum D: Opisthorchis viverrini
3
Concentric teeth bite mark on forearm, what to do next?
A: 2 swab technique for saliva collection B: Keep scale for measuring below the mark and take photo in the plane of bite C: Complete description of injury as seen D: Prepare cast using vinyl polysiloxane
2
A patient believes he is the most impoant person in the world than anyone so his neighbors and family is trying to harm him as they are jealous of him. His wife says otherwise and says he behaves like this recently only before he was working as a school-teacher peacefully and brought to OPD. He is suffering from:
A: Delusion of grandiosity B: Delusion of persecution C: Delusion of grandiosity and persecution D: Delusion of grandiosity, persecution and reference
3
Measuring variation between two different units is done through
A: Variance B: Standard deviation C: Coefficient of variation D: Range
2
Which of the following diseases is diagnosed with the help of the flowcytometry pattern?
A: Bruton disease B: Bare lymphocyte syndrome C: Hyper IgM syndrome D: Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
2
Best indicator of developing cardiovascular disease is
A: LDL cholesterol level more than 120 mg/dl B: History of salt intake of more than 6 gm/day C: LDL/HDL ratio D: All of the above
2
Pulp proper contains
A: Large Blood vessels B: Nerve fibers C: Fibroblasts D: All of the above
3
Which of the following is used as a bio-degradable membrane in "guided tissue regeneration" process?
A: Polylactic acid B: Poly tetrafluoroethylene C: Millipore D: Core membrane
0
Pulmonary-renal syndromes include-
A: Goodpasture B: Leptospirosis C: Hantavirus and Wegner's D: All
3
Bone sounding done in modern times is performed by which method?
A: RVG B: Probing C: CBCT D: Radiovisiography
2
Oil red '0' stain is used for:
A: Glutaraldehyde fixed specimen B: Alcohol fixed specimen C: Formalin fixed specimen D: Frozen specimen
3
Jaw or tooth apart swallow is:
A: Infantile swallow. B: Mature swallow. C: Both D: None.
0
A female with suspected child abuse was brought to the casualty with severe bleeding from the perineum. What should be the first line of management?
A: Airway maintenance B: Internal iliac aery ligation C: Whole blood transfusion D: Inform police before staing the treatment
0
Classify the class of recession:
A: Class 1 B: Class 2 C: Class 3 D: Class 4
2
Method of choice for a New born child not passing urine for 36 hours :
A: Ultrasound of kidney & bladder B: CT Scan C: Cystoscopy D: X–ray pelvis
0
Bacteria free zone of dentinal caries is
A: a)Zone of decomposed dentin B: Zone of bacterial invasion C: Zone of decalcification D: Zone of dentinal sclerosis
3
Which is not a type of Gracey curvettes?
A: # 1-2 B: # 11-12 C: # 13-14 D: # 5-16
3
Which ion of hydroxyapatite crystals is substituted by Fluoride imparts more strength?
A: Hydroxyl ion B: Calcium ion C: Phosphate ion D: None
0
Cleaning of base metal alloy is done by
A: Warm HCl B: Cold HF C: Cold H2 So4 D: Sand blasting with aluminium oxide
3
Estimation of the blood sugar is relevant in all except –
A: Birth asphyxia B: Large for date baby C: Baby of hypothyroid mother D: Rh Incompatibility
2
All are true about isolated aoic stenoses except:
A: Pulsus bisferiens B: Cardiac apex is displaced laterally to left C: Thrill in carotid aery D: Blood pressure maintained in initial phase
0
Which of the following is the most common site for the occurrence of a basal cell carcinoma?
A: Buccal mucosa B: Hard palate C: Skin of the lower lip D: Dorsum of the tongue
2
Who was associated with second amalgam war?
A: G V Black B: Charles bell C: Huggins D: Alfred stock
3
Reticular fibers of collagen tissues are present in all of the following except:
A: Thymus B: Spleen C: Bone marrow D: Lymph node
0
Which of the following muscle is not supplied by the nerve marked in the diagram?
A: Superior oblique B: Medial rectus C: Inferior rectus D: Inferior oblique
0
Which is a direct content of cavernous sinus?
A: Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve B: Trochlear nerve C: Abducent nerve D: Oculomotor nerve
2
In Mount and Hume classification, what will be the site size of the following lesion?
A: 2.1 B: 2.2 C: 3.1 D: 3.2
2
Keeping in Jack-knife position for long leads to death by:
A: Wedging B: Burking C: Positional asphyxia D: Traumatic asphyxia
2
Extraction of 3rd molar tooth bud in 7-9 yr old child:
A: Improves growth of maxilla B: Causes excessive damage to the mandible C: Results of future orthodontic treatment are improved anterior teeth D: Results in less crowding
3
Which of the following statements is false in relation to myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome?
A: Mainly affects young females B: Is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits as grinding and clenching C: Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress free emotional condition D: The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic
3
Which of the following features is not seen in Crouzon syndrome?
A: Midface hypoplasia B: Syndactyly C: Beak shaped nose D: Ocular hypertelorism
1
The best finish line for anterior metal ceramic crown is
A: Chamfer with bevel B: Heavy chamfer C: Shoulder D: Shoulder with bevel
3
Kamlesh, a 2 year old girl, has Down's syndrome. Her karyotype is 21/21 translocation. What is the risk ofrecurrence in subsequent pregnancies if the father is a balanced translocation carrier :
A: 100% B: 50% C: 25% D: 0%
0
Which of the following are the predominant connective tissue cells of the periodontal Ligament?
A: Cementoblasts B: Fibroblasts C: Osteoblasts D: Rests of Malassez
1
Which of the following is characterized by Apple Jelly Nodules?
A: Scrofula B: Lupus vulgaris C: Ghon’s focus D: Ghon's complex
1
A 50 years okl smoker and hypeensive was diagnose to have non-small cell lung carcinoma with brain metastases. He is on enalapril and hydrochlorothiazide for hypeension. On investigation, he had a serum Sodium 120 mg/dl|, Urinary Sodium ll0 mg/dl, Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL, Serum osmolarity 285 mOsm/L, Urinary osmolarity 35l mOsm/L, Urinary K+ 9 mg/dl, Blood sugar ll2 mgldL and BP of 150/90 mm Hg. Which of the following is the mnst probable cause for his hyponatremia?
A: Cerebral salt wasting B: Diuretic induced C: SIADH D: Pseudohyponatremia
2
A 40 year male complaining of hot flushes each time he baths. Hb: 20%gm, Platelet: 89,000/mL, WBC: 30,000/mL, Investigation revealed JAK2 mutation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A: PMF B: CML C: PCV D: Essential thrombocytosis
2
A 55- year old diabetic patient presents with transient obscuration in vision for 2-3 days followed by sudden loss of vision. Which of the following would be the best test to evaluate the symptoms?
A: Serum ACE levels B: Quantiferon-Gold TB test C: Elevated homocysteine levels D: Serum creatinine levels
3
One of the most common side effects of phenytoin is
A: Gingival Hyperplasia B: Gingival Necrosis C: Dental stains D: Hypertension
0
A 38-years old patient who had a total abdominal hysterectomy presents 2 months postop complaining of leakage of urine from the vagina. On examination, no fistula can be identified. Dilute methylene blue (100mL) is injected into the bladder through a Foley catheter and a tampon is placed in the vagina. The patient is asked to walk for about 15 minutes, after which the patient is found to be wet, but there is no blue stain anywhere on the tampon. Which of the following is true:-
A: 100mL was probably not enough methylene blue, and the test should be repeated with a higher volume B: The patient probably has stress incontinence not a fistula C: The patient probably has a ureterovaginal fistula D: The patient most likely has small apical vesicovaginal fistula that was too small to leak the dye in 15 minutes
2
Freedom of centric relation correlates with
A: 0.15 - 1.5 mm B: 0.20 - 0.40 mm C: 0.5 to 1.5 mm D: 1 to 2 mmm
2
Ganglionic transmission is mediated by:
A: Presynaptic alpha-receptors B: Postsynaptic beta-receptors C: Postsynaptic dopaminergic receptors D: Postsynaptic nicotinic receptors
3
Which of the following is not an example of a syndrome caused by uniparental disomy?
A: Prader-Willi syndrome B: Angelman syndrome C: Russell-Silver syndrome D: Bloom syndrome
3
One of the many mechanisms of adverse events is its increased binding to secondary targets, usually proteins. With respect to the primary target, the secondary target:
A: Should be present in the same tissue as the primary target B: Should have similar binding sites C: Should have absolutely identical secondary structure D: Should have a similar primary structure
1
School based dental health care for whole country is adopted by which of the following country?
A: USA B: NewZealand C: Sweden D: Australia
1
Postrenal transplant patient presents with diarrhoea after 3 months; it was showing organism measuring 2-6 micron meter and kinoyn stain positive. Most likely it is caused by:
A: Balantidium coli B: Clostridium difficile C: Cystoisospora belli D: Cryptosporidium hominis
3
Iron entry into enterocytes occurs which of the following?
A: DMT-1 B: Ferropoin C: Transferrin D: Hepcidin
0
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry coughp; sputum culture showed growth on Charcoal Yeast Extract Medium, the organism is
A: H. influenza B: Moraxella catarrhalis C: Legionella D: Burkholderia cepacia
2
Ashley-Howe model analysis is used to predict:
A: Tooth material excess B: Maxillo-mandibular relationships C: Basal bone-transverse relationship D: Growth prediction
2
A neonate on routine examination at bih was found to have hepatomegaly. Rest of the examination was essentially unremarkable. On investigations, Anti-HCMV antibodies were found to be positive. What sequelae in later life is the child at risk of?
A: Renal failure B: Mental retardation C: Hepatic fibrosis D: Sensorineural hearing loss
3
Patient is a known case of epilepsy, taking levetiracetam 1 gm BD. He is now seizure free from 2 years but he developed agitation and anger issues interfering with day to day activities as a result of the drug intake. What should be the next best step?
A: Stop levetiracetam and sta on a different antiepileptic B: Discontinue the drug as he is seizure free C: Slowly taper the drug over next 6 months D: Continue levetiracetam since a 5-year seizure free interval is needed
2
Which of the following statements regarding the National Programme for Non-communicable diseases-Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular diseases (CVD) and stroke (NPCDCS) is true?
A: The plan is to implement the programme in 10 districts across the 5 states during 2010-2012 B: The diagnosis or treatment of non-communicable diseases to be carried out at the subcentre level C: Coronary care unit and cancer care facility to be established at the district level hospital D: All the components of the programme to be addressed separately- cancer, diabetes, CVD and stroke
2
Contractile element in myofibril is:
A: H band B: Sarcoplasm C: Sarcomere D: A line
2
All of the following complications are more common in ventouse assisted delivery than forceps except:
A: Subgaleal hemorrhage B: Cephalhematoma C: Intracranial hemorrhage D: Transient lateral rectus palsy
3
All of the following are true about aspiration pneumonia except:
A: Aspiration of 20-30 mL of contents with pH < 2.5 is required B: Fungal infection is the common cause of pneumonia C: Posterior segment of the right upper lobe is most commonly affected in the recumbent position D: Aspiration responsible for 5-15% of community acquired pneumonia
1
Which of the following is not associated with haemorrhage?
A: Ecchymosis B: Petechiae C: Melanosis D: Purpura
2
Dapsone is used for treatment of bacterial and fungal infections as well as for immunomodulatory actions. What is mechanism of dapsone for these indication?
A: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis B: Inhibition of ergosterol in cell membranes C: Inhibition of protein synthesis D: Competition with PABA in folic acid synthesis
3
In processing methyl methacrylate, the resin may show porosity if the flask is placed too soon. Porosity most likely occur
A: Throughout the denture B: Near the borders C: In the thickest part D: On the denture surface
2
Pre-maxillary hard palate is supplied by which nerve
A: Nasopalatine nerve B: Pharyngeal branch of glossopharyngeal nerve C: Greater palatine nerve D: Tensor palatine nerve
0
23 serotypes pneumococcal vaccine Most useful in
A: Cystic fibrosis B: Recurrent otitis media & sinusitis C: Child less than 2 years D: Sickle cell anaemia
3
Fourth generation apex locater based on
A: Resistance B: lmpedence C: Frequency D: Multiple frequency ratio
3
Biopsy specimens removed for examinations are immediately placed in:
A: 10% ethanol B: 10% formalin C: Hydrogen peroxide D: 1% formalin
1
True open bite is caused by
A: Horizontal fracture of the maxilla B: Unilateral fracture of mandibular angle C: Fracture of the coronoid process of left side of mandible D: Fracture of mandibular symphysis
0
Greatest potential hazard of mercury toxicity occurs due to:
A: Skin contact with mercury B: Inhalation of mercury vapours C: During amalgam restoration D: Ingestion of amalgam scrap during removal
1
Which of the following is an indiction for tonsillectomy –a) Rheumatic feverb) Glomerulonephritisc) Recurrent upper respiratory infectiond) Persistent carrier of diptheria bacilli
A: ab B: cd C: bd D: ac
1
Which of the following is not an effect of efferent aeriole constriction :
A: Decreased GFR B: Increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure C: Decreased blood flow in peritubular vessels D: Increased oncotic pressure in peritubular vessels
0